Did Thomas address the Father as ὁ θεός μου in John 20:28?

 A Unitarian said that in John 20:28, Thomas said to Jesus ''my Lord'' and Thomas said to the Father ''My God''.

My response: 

If you have seen him, you have seen the Father.

That is in John 14:9 and it's not even about the physical appearance of Jesus! it's about works based on context (vv. 9-11) [1]. Thus, it has nothing to do with John 20:29 which has Jesus blessing those who believed even if they did not see his resurrected physical body!

If you insist that the Father is seen in Jesus' risen body in John 20:28, then, to be consistent in your logic the Father is seen crucified since Jesus is seen crucified, that the Father is seen dead since Jesus is seen dead and so forth.

John 20:28 explicitly states that Thomas is speaking to Jesus alone as evident by the singular pronoun in the text [2]. 

John 20:28 explicitly states that Thomas is saying ''my God'' to Jesus alone based on grammar.

There is no evidence that the Father is being addressed as ''my God'' in John 20:28. The Unitarian's alleged contextual argument from John 14:9-10 is an example of eisegesis (the interpretation of a text (as of the Bible) by reading into it one's own ideas). 

Notes

[1] Seeing the actions/works of Jesus is equal to seeing the Father. In this case, the Father is seen in the works, not in the literal appearance of Jesus. 

If Jesus were working, and Scripture says that the Father himself, dwelling inside Jesus, is working in Jesus, it means that Jesus is not performing his miracles alone. Jesus did perform the miracles but the Father also performs them ''inside Jesus'' (''The Father is in me...'' John 14:11b). In the same verse, Jesus also performs his miracles ''inside the Father'' (''...and I in the Father'', John 14:11b). The mutual indwelling of the Father and the Son is explicitly stated in John 14:10-11 and it refers to their works in that they do the exact same thing. This mutual indwelling is not literal (neither the Father literally is inside Jesus nor Jesus is literally inside the Father). 

Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works. John 14:10

Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me, or else believe on account of the works themselves - John 14:11

But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working.” - John 5:17

Summary: Seeing Jesus is seeing the Father (meaning, the Father and Jesus doing together the same works). - John 14:9-10

 [2]  John 14:9 says that seeing Jesus is seeing the Father's works in him based on context (vv. 10-11). This is entirely different from saying ''my God'' to Jesus whose literal body is seen in John 20:28-29. Thomas was not addressing the Father inside Jesus in John 20:28. Thomas did not say ''my God'' to the Father in John 20:28. The author explicitly writes the pronoun αὐτῷ which in context explicitly has Jesus (not the Father) as the antecedent.

In John 20:28, based on John 14:9-10, Thomas sees the work of the Father in Jesus (i.e. raising Jesus from the dead) but there is no indication that the Father is being addressed as ''my God'' in the text. Thomas was speaking to Jesus alone in the verse. Based on the grammar of John 20:28, Thomas did not say to the Father ''my God''. Thomas only said ''my God'' to Jesus alone, the only antecedent of the singular pronoun in the same verse. 

Thomas said to Jesus ho kyrios mou (''my Lord''). Thomas did not only say ho kyrios mou to Jesus. Thomas adds: kai ho theos mou ('' and my God''). Based on the grammar, Thomas said to Jesus alone the 2 phrases ho kurios mou (''my Lord'') and ho theos mou (''my God'') conjoined by the conjunction kai (''and''). The text has a singular pronoun auto (''him''). 

There is no evidence that the Father is being addressed as ''my God'' in John 20:28. The Unitarian's alleged contextual argument from John 14:9-10 is an example of eisegesis (the interpretation of a text (as of the Bible) by reading into it one's own ideas). 

John's Jewish Concept of Divine Sonship

 Jewish concept of divine sonship in John's gospel

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:1 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants]

ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1:12 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants]

ὅσοι δὲ ἔλαβον αὐτόν, ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς ἐξουσίαν τέκνα θεοῦ γενέσθαι, τοῖς πιστεύουσιν εἰς τὸ ὄνομα αὐτοῦ,

ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 20:31 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants]

ταῦτα δὲ γέγραπται ἵνα πιστεύητε / πιστεύσητε ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστὶν ὁ χριστὸς ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ, καὶ ἵνα πιστεύοντες ζωὴν ἔχητε ἐν τῷ ὀνόματι αὐτοῦ.

Prologue of John:

The Word was God (John 1:1)

In him was life (John 1:4)

Believe in his name (John 1:12)

Epilogue of John:

That you may believe 

Jesus Christ, the Son of God

that by believing you may have  

life in his name (John 20:31)​

The inclusio in the Gospel of John reveals that "Belief in Jesus as both God and Son to have Life" is the gospel's purpose. 

In Psalm 82:6, the "sons" of Most High God are called "gods" by the Most High himself. This is explicit biblical evidence that it is possible to be both "god" and "son of god" simultaneously. Jesus quoted this psalm and regarded it as scripture in John 10:34 ("you are gods"), applying to himself the title "Son" in v. 36.

Jesus is God because he is the Son of God, just like the people in Ps. 82:6 are gods because they are sons of god (Most High). The big difference is that Jesus' divine sonship does not only refer to his relationship with god the Father in regard to holiness. It also includes his preeminence above all creatures because they are all created through him, as the Son: "by his Son, he created the universe" (Heb. 1:2). god the Father himself testifies that His Son is Creator: "You, Lord, have laid the foundations of the earth and the heavens are the work of your hands" (Heb. 1:10) and also, "For us, there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things" (1 Cor 8:6) and again, "all things were made through him (i.e. the Son of his beloved, v 13) and he is before all things" (Col. 1:16-17). John himself testisfies that the Son is Creator: "Nothing was made without him", all things having been made through him (John 1:3)

Notes
1. inclusio - In biblical studies, inclusio is a literary device based on a concentric principle, also known as bracketing or an envelope structure, which consists of creating a frame by placing similar material at the beginning and end of a section.
2. According to majority of scholars (both Jewish and Christian), the gods who are sons in Psalm 82 refers to the angels. The evidence for this is found in the Dead Sea Scrolls (DSS), the Septuagint (the Greek version of the Hebrew Bible) and the Jewish Targums which are all its ancient witness. In the Targum, it says in v. 6 "you are like the angels", referring to humans. In the Hebrew Bible, it says "you are gods" even in the Masoretic text.
3. It doesn't matter who specifically the sons (who are gods) in Ps 82:6. What matters is that these sons are gods according to the Most High god himself. The Most High said: "you are gods"). Jesus being both god and son of god isn't a Christian invention but originates from a very ancient Jewish belief. John utilised exactly these biblical Jewish sources to convey his christology in his gospel.

 One Lord, Jesus Christ: Paul's ''Kyrios Christology''

(Christ Pantocrator (Greek: Χριστὸς Παντοκράτωρ) ,

 A Byzantine icon of Jesus Christ, circa 5th century A.D. source )

There is no distinction in the Greek text. The 2 occurrences of kyrios in Psalm 110:1 have the same generic meaning of ''lord''. In the Masoretic text, there's a distinction between the first lord and the second lord in regard to the titles because the first lord is Adonai (literally, ''My Lords'', when ascribed to YHWH, it becomes ''My Lord'' or simply ''Lord'') whilst the second lord is Adoni (literally, my lord). The distinction between ''LORD'', ''Lord'' and 'lord'' in English is that ''LORD'' is often used as written substitute for the Tetragrammaton YHWH in the Old Testament English translations. On the other hand, ''Lord'' is often the written substitute for the divine name in English translations of the New Testament and ''lord'' simply refers to any superior, or one who has authority over another/others (master/ruler/husband (Abraham)/angel etc.). As far as i know, all English NT bibles have Jesus as ''Lord'', affirming his being true God.

There are NT texts saying that Jesus was made Lord, was highly exalted, was given all power in heaven and earth etc. [1]. However, in earliest NT texts (Paul's letters), Jesus Christ was already Lord, during the creation of all things and prior to his (Jesus') incarnation. Paul also believed that Jesus had chosen to empty himself of his lordship in order become like a slave which meant Jesus wanted to serve not to be served during his ministry on earth.  The risen Jesus becomes Lord again when God the Father exalted him (Jesus) above every creature in heaven, on earth and under the earth. 

Jesus, as Lord, created all things

1 Corinthians 8:6 New Revised Standard Version

6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.

Paul identified Jesus as Creator of all things and as the one Lord mentioned in the Greek Shema Yisrael [2].

Jesus emptied himself of lordship

Philippians 2:6-7 New Revised Standard Version

6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be exploited, 7 but emptied himself, taking the form of a slave, being born in human likeness. And being found in human form,

Mark 10:45 New Revised Standard Version

45 For the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give his life a ransom for many.”

Jesus is functionally equal with God because he, like God, is Lord. Both God and Jesus rule over all creatures. Jesus was ''Lord'' [kurios] but he (Jesus) chose to empty himself, specifically by taking the form of a ''slave'' [doulos]. That is to say, Jesus vacated his throne as Lord in order to become like a slave (a slave is one who serves; a servant). Jesus ''came to serve'', as Mark puts it. 

Jesus becomes Lord again.

Philippians 2:9-11 New Revised Standard Version

9 Therefore God also highly exalted him and gave him the name that is above every name, 10 so that at the name of Jesus every knee should bend, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Psalm 97:9 Brenton Septuagint Translation

For thou art Lord most high over all the earth; thou art greatly exalted above all gods. 

Paul applied to Jesus the same exact word ''ὑπερυψόω'' (elevate above/ highly exalt/ greatly exalt) which LXX translator applied to the ''Lord'' in Psalm 97:9. God gave ''the name above all names'' or ''title above all titles'' to Jesus. The name/title in the context is ''Kyrios'' (''Lord''). (v. 11). See Acts 2:36 (''God made Jesus ''Kyrios'' (''Lord'')). 

The ancient Jews used ''Kyrios'' (''Lord'') as an oral/verbal substitute for the divine name. In the Septuagint (ca. 3rd cen. C.E.), ''Kyrios'' (''Lord'') is also used as written substitute for the divine name. In these copies, Kyrios is written anarthrous (''without the definite article'') indicating that the title Kyrios is being used as a proper name, not as a common noun. 

Notes

[1]   

• God gave to Jesus all power in heaven and on earth (Matthew 28:18)
• God put all things under Jesus' feet (1 Corinthians 15:26-27)
• God highly-exalted Jesus (Philippians 2:9a)
• God made Jesus Lord (Acts 2:36)
• God gave to Jesus the name above all names (Philippians 2:9b) so that every knee , Paul adds: ''in heaven, on earth, and under the earth'', will bend in the name of ''Jesus''. 
• God seated Jesus at his right hand in the heavenly realms far above every rule and authority and power and dominion and every name that is named (Ephesians 1:20-21)

1. God put all things under Jesus' feet, obviously exempting God and Jesus (they aren't including in the all things). 

2. 1 Corinthians 15, all things are not subject to God. all things will be subject to God after Jesus subjects himself to God because God himself subjects all things to Jesus. 

3. 1 Corinthians 15 does not say/ never said that Jesus' lordship/kingdom/dominion/rule will end. Luke 1:33 explicitly said that Jesus' kingdom ''has no end''.

4. All power [over all creatures] in heaven and on earth. Jesus does not have power over everyone in heaven. He has no power over God the Father who gave him power. ''all power in heaven'' refers to ''all creatures in heaven i.e. the angels''.

5. Every knee (in 3 different locations: heaven, earth and under the earth) will bend in the name of Jesus. These are the knees of all creatures in heaven, on earth and under the earth. 

Matt 28:18, 1 Cor 15:26-27, Phil 2:10-11, all of these NT texts indicate that Jesus, as Lord, is uncreated. 

[2]

Romans 11:36 New Revised Standard Version 

33 O the depth of the riches and wisdom and knowledge of God! How unsearchable are his judgments and how inscrutable his ways! 34 “For who has known the mind of the Lord? Or who has been his counselor?” 35 “Or who has given a gift to him,  to receive a gift in return?” 36 For from him and through him and to him are all things. To him be the glory forever. Amen.

1 Corinthians 8:6 New Revised Standard Version

6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.

Paul applies the two different titles (''God'' and ''Lord'') to one figure in Romans 11:36. In the context, verse 34, Paul quoted Isaiah 40:13 from the Septuagint, identifying the ''Lord'' as the God of Israel. Paul also applies the two prepositional phrases (''from whom are all things'' and ''through whom are all things'') to one figure in Romans 11:36.  In 1 Corinthians 8:6, Paul applies the two different titles  (''God'' and ''Lord'') of Romans 11:36 to two different figures (''the Father'' and ''Jesus Christ''). Paul applied ''God'' to the Father and ''Lord'' to Jesus Christ. Paul also applies the two prepositional phrases  (''from whom are all things'' and ''through whom are all things'') of Romans 11:36 to two different figures, applying ''from whom are all things'' to the Father and ''through whom are all things'' to Jesus Christ in 1 Corinthians 8:6. Paul also was detailed in 1 Corinthians 8:6 in that he modified the divine titles  (''God'' and ''Lord'') with the adjective ''one'' (Greek: heis): ''one God'' and ''one Lord'', which alludes to the Shema Yisrael in Greek (''Lord our God, Lord is one''). In this case, Paul equated both the Father and Jesus Christ to the Lord God of the Old Testament, identifying each of them as legitimately one Lord God. 

Both Romans 11:36 and 1 Corinthians 8:6 speak of the creation of ''all things''. Since we're talking about all things in the context of creation, ''all things'' in Romans 11:36 and 1 Corinthians 8:6 refers to ''all created things''. Paul believed that the Father and Jesus Christ are equally uncreated. 

Acts 17:24 New Revised Standard Version

24 The God who made the world and everything in it, he who is Lord of heaven and earth, does not live in shrines made by human hands,

God is Lord precisely because he created all things. Jesus Christ, together with the Father, created all things so that's why Jesus is Lord in 1 Corinthians 8:6. In 1 Corinthians 8:6, Paul applies to Jesus the divine title ''Lord'' and the prepositional phrase ''through him are all things'' of Romans 11:35-36, identifying Jesus as both God and Creator.

proto-orthodox Christology in Earliest NT texts (the Pauline Corpus)

Paul applies the Shema to ''the Father'' and ''Jesus Christ'' in 1 Corinthians 8:6. Paul did not say that the Father and Jesus Christ are the ''one Lord God'' which would conflate the two figures (modalism). What Paul did is to conflate the two numerically distinct figures (Father and Jesus) to the one figure of the Shema (the Lord our God, the Lord is one).

Paul is alluding the Shema in 1 Cor 8:6. Paul applies the 2 different titles in it ( κυριος and θεος) with its adjective εις to 2 different persons (πατρος and Ιησους) in 1 Cor 8:6. In other words, Paul identifies each person as the Lord God. In orthodox Trinitarianism, the Father is God, the Son is God, the Holy Spirit is God, they're not three Gods but one God. Paul's way is proto-orthodoxy. He successfully equated the Father and Jesus with the OT Lord God without conflating their distinct personalities. In 1 Cor 8:6, Paul was able to distinguish the Father and Jesus as 2 persons with the use of different divine titles (Lord/God) indicating the same deity and different prepositions indicating the same function (from him/through him are all things). 2 numerically distinct persons with each of them fully/very God, only differing in words used. John approached orthodoxy already: The Word was "with God" and was "God" at the same time (John 1:1).

The phrases ''heis kyrios'' and ''heis theos'' are absent in the Septuagint. These were coined by Paul himself, deriving them from the Greek version of the Shema. 

First clause of the Shema:

Hear O Israel, The Lord our God 

1 Corinthians 8:6

[one] God [the Father]

In 1 Corinthians 8:6a, Paul used the word heis (one) from the second clause of the Shema. Paul coined the phrase ‘’eis theos’’ (one God) so that the adjective heis (one) modifies theos (God). Paul omits the phrase (Hear O Israel), and the word kyrios (Lord).Then he adds ‘’the Father’’.

Second clause of the Shema: 

The Lord is one 

1 Corinthians 8:6

one Lord [Jesus Christ] 

In Deuteronomy 6:4, the adjective eis (one) is in the predicate case conjoined to the noun kurios (lord) by the copula estin (is). In 1 Corinthians 8:6b, Paul omitted the verb estin (is) and coined the phrase ‘’heis kyrios’’ and adds ''Jesus Christ''.

Paul applies the Shema's 2 divine titles (''Lord'' and ''God'') with its adjective ''one'' to 2 persons (''the Father'' and ''Jesus Christ'') in 1 Corinthians 8:6. Paul did this to equate both the Father and Jesus Christ with OT Lord God. 

Paul used two different divine titles (''Lord'' and ''God'') found in the Shema and applied each divine title to two different figures: the Father and Jesus Christ. Paul applies the divine title ''God'' to ''the Father'' and the divine title ''Lord'' to ''Jesus Christ''. This shows that Paul believed that the Father and Jesus Christ were the same Lord God spoken of in the Shema while also believing that the Father and Jesus Christ were two numerically distinct figures (which later generations of Christians would call ''persons''). This is proto-orthodoxy.

Paul consistently applies to Jesus the divine title ''Lord'' and to the Father the divine title ''God'' in his epistles. This practise stems from the application of the Shema to the Father and Jesus Christ in 1 Corinthians 8:6.

• “Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus the Messiah.”  Rom. 1:7; 1 Cor. 1:3; 2 Cor. 1:2; Gal. 1:3; Eph. 1:2; Phil. 1:2; Col. 1:2b; 1 Thess.1c; 2 Thess. 1:2; Philemon 1:3
• “Grace, mercy and peace from God the Father and Messiah Jesus our Lord.” 1 Tim.1:2b; 2 Tim.1:2b

Paul held onto a belief that can be characterised as "Semi-modalism" (not modalism per se) or "proto-Orthodox" (proto-Trinitarianism) when later concepts were used to relate to (not to interpret) his christological/theological beliefs.

Another historical explanation is the concept of "Syncretism" wherein two deities "merged" to become a single god. This is common concept in the Ancient Near East (ANE). For instance, the Egyptian god Amun-Ra is the syncretism of the god Amun and the god Ra.

In ancient Israelite beliefs, Jewish scholar and Semitic language professor Benjamin Sommers spoke of the "divine fluidity" of Yahweh wherein he can "fragment" his one self into many bodies on earth so that God was really present in the rock (betyl), or that he really appeared to people and was called an angel in the OT etc. these small-scale incarnations of Yahweh in the OT were distinct from Yahweh who's in heaven. But they're all the same Yahweh.

Then we have the Two Powers theology (Alan Segal, James Mcgrath et al.) in the first century A.D. which held that Two Yahwehs (one in heaven and one visiblel in the earth) coexisted. This was not considered a heresy in Judaism until the latter part of the second century A.D.

Immanuel (God with us): The Multi-Layered Meaning of the Gospel of John [Part 2]

1. ''The Word'' (ho logos) as the risen Christ

In the beginning (the ''first day of the week'', John "the day of the Lord" Revelation 1:10 ),

was the Word (refers to Jesus, the Word of God and the King of Kings in Revelation 19:13). He's the same King of Kings who dwells in unapproachable light in 1 Timothy 6:16, and who ''was manifest in the flesh'' (1 Timothy 3:16)

And the Word was with God The risen Christ had ascended into heaven and had come "into the bosom of the Father" John 1:18. ''pros ton theon'' [(going) to God] is parallel to ''pros ton patera''  ("I am going to the Father" in John 14:28). 

The Word was God (Thomas said to the risen Christ: "My Lord and my God", John 20:28, David said to God: "My God and my Lord", Psalm 35:23).

footnotes:

The prologue parallels the last chapter of the gospel, which had the account of the resurrection, forming an inclusio. The beginning was "the first day of the week" when Christ was resurrected. The light shining in darkess in John 1:4 refers to glory (see John 1:14). δοχα also had the definition of "brightness" (BDAG). The sense is that of "high-light-ing" the good works either of Jesus or of his disciples as well as the resurrection (see the glory in John 17, compare with Philippians 3:20-21). 

2.  ''The Word'' (ho logos) as the pre-incarnate Christ

John 1:1

"In [the] beginning" (ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ) refers to the beginning when: ''all [things] came into being'' (πάντα... ἐγένετο ). 

"was the Word" refers to the title/name of Jesus before he became flesh (i.e. mortal). 

''with God'' is also accurate translation of ''pros ton theon'' because ''pros'' also refers to ''close proximity'' (i.e. being near to someone). This agrees with John 1:18 wherein Jesus is located in the Father's bosom (recall the beloved apostle reclining on Jesus' bosom in John's gospel in John 13:23).

The Word "was God" with God (i.e. with the only true God, John 17:3). The Word himself is the "only God" (John 1:18 ESV), and is "full of truth" (John 1:14). 

The Greek word related to arche is arches. Internally (i.e. within the gospel of John), arches has occurred 4x and each refers to various ''beginnings''. 

Chiastic Structure (A-A-B-B-C-C) in all occurence of arche(s):

A: John 1:1 arche = Jesus with God

A: John 1:2 arche = Jesus (God) with God

B: John 6:64: arches = Judas ''Iscariot'' (murderer)

B: John 8:44: arches = devil ( = murderer) 

C:John 15:27: arches = discples with Jesus

C: John 16:4: arches = discples with Jesus

footnote:

Judas’ surname is more probably a corruption of the Latin sicarius (“murderer” or “assassin”) than an indication of family origin, suggesting that he would have belonged to the Sicarii, the most radical Jewish group, some of whom were terrorists (https://www.britannica.com/biography/Judas-Iscariot). 

1. John 6:64 when Jesus chose them and knew who will betray him. Jesus knew what is in man (John 1) nd Jesus knows all things. (John ). As God, he knows this from the beginning, for he was God before anything else came into being. As the Logos, nothing is hidden from him (Hebrews ). Jesus already know this before he was betrayed.  The actual betrayal happened many chapters after. 
2. John 8:44 Satan was murderer from the beginning in Genesis, when Adam and Eve surely died. Also, when Abel was killed. The beginning here was in Genesis at least when Adam was already created. But Jesus existed prior to this. Jesus was God in the begginning.
3. John 15:27  witness.....you are with Me from the beginning. The beginning of Jesus' ministry by choosing 1t 12 disciples who testify that he was in the beginningIt alludes John 1:5, witness/testify that i am the Son of God 1:34, they witness about who was in the beginning, John 1:1. 
4. The references in John 15:27 and John 16:4 to arches do not directly but indirectly points to the beginning (en arche) before time began. They tesfify directly about the Son of God (who is himself before time, in the beginning). The 12 disciples (and all other disciples) should testify together with John the Baptist that Jesus ''existed before me''. 
5. John 16:4 I did not say (eipon from lego form which logos also came from) because i was with you. It alludes John 1:1:3. But now he is going back to the Father, with whom he was with in the beginning. the beginning of the ministry was about Jesus as the Son of God and as the Son of God, Jesus was in the beginning of the world. 

A chiastic structure (AA-BB-CC-DD) in the entire gospel of John. All of these speak of Jesus ''pre-existing'' or ''existing before'' something or someone else:

A: John 1:3 Jesus existed before all things came into existence

A: John 1:15 Jesus pre-existed John

B: John 3:13 Son of Man came down from heaven ( compare with John 3:31 Above all because came from heaven)

B:  John 6:51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. Jesus was "living' in heaven before he came down from heaven

C: John 8:38 Jesus saw God (see also John 6:46)

GC: John 8:58 Abraham saw Jesus

D: John 12:38 Lord, who believe our report. Lord here refers to God.

D:  John 12:41 Isaiah saw Jesus' glory as Lord God

E: John 17:5 Jesus existed with the Father before the world existed

C: John 17:24 God loved Jesus before the foundation of the world

B:  John 20:22 Jesus is the Lord God who breated into man in Genesis 2:7

A: John 20:28 Jesus is the Lord God whom David calls his Lord and God in Psalm 35:23 

Jesus existed before John - Jesus was in the beginning before all things were made but John the Baptist came into existence (John 1:6 there came into existence John from God).

Jesus exists, Abraham had come into existence. Jesus and Abraham was contrasted as to their existence. Jesus exists (the way God exists in Psalm 90:2) while Abraham had a beginning.

Jesus descended from heaven:

The 4th gospel consistently used καταβαίνω (to come down, to descend) literally (John 1:32, 1:33, 1:51, 3:13, 4:47, 4:49, 4:51, 5:4, 5:7, 6:16, 6:33, 6:38, 6:41, 6:42, 6:50, 6:51, 6:58). 

John 1:33 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

33 I myself did not know him, but the one who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend (τὸ πνεῦμα καταβαῖνον) and remain is the one who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.’

John 1:51 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

51 And he said to him, “Very truly, I tell you, you will see heaven (οὐρανὸν ἀνεῳγότα) opened and the angels of God ascending and descending (καταβαίνοντας) upon the Son of Man.”

John 3:13 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

13 No one has ascended into heaven except the one who descended from heaven (ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ καταβάς), the Son of Man.

1. The Holy Spirit descended from heaven physically in the form of a dove as John himself saw (John 1:32).
2. The angels also appeared physically in the form of humans who were seen by humans (John 20:12). The Old Testament had lots of angelic visits that were so visible to humans. 
3. Jesus also descended from heaven in a physical body when he ''became flesh'' (John 1:14, 3:13).
4.  These three (the Holy Spirit, the angels, and Jesus) were all described as descending from heaven inside the Gospel of John. 
5. They were all pre-existent before they descened from heaven to earth. This is a very strong (cogent) evidence that Jesus was alive in heaven before he became flesh. John 1:1 says that Jesus was pre-existent, not as angel (ἄγγελος) but as God (Θεὸς).

Notes

Layers-of-meaning - a literary technique where an author expects his audience to see additional meaning other than what a literal reading of the text conveys. 

Allusion is basically a reference to something else. It’s when a writer mentions some other work, or refers to an earlier part of the current work.

one God, one Lord: New Testament Theology

Jesus is the same God as his Father, not because the Father is Jesus, but because the Father and Jesus are equated to the 1 OT Lord God. 

The NT writers equated these 2 distinct persons: "the Father" and "Jesus Christ" to the OT Yahweh ( who is called both κυριος (Lord) and θεος (God) in the Greek of the Jewish prayer "Shema Yisrael"). This is why in the NT, the Father is called "God the Father" and Jesus Christ is called "Lord Jesus Christ". 

In the NT, the consistent identification of the Father as the OT God and Jesus Christ as the OT Lord is evidence that they are deemed to be the same OT Yahweh (OT Lord God) by the earliest/original Christians in the NT (John 1:1, 20:17, 20:22, 20:28, Romans 10:9-13, 1 Corinthians 1:2, 8:6, Philippians 2:9-11, Jude 1:4, 1:25, Revelation 1:8, 14:4, 20:6).

Acts 2:36 says Jesus is made κυριος (Lord). It means he is not previously Lord. What was he? He chose to become like a slave (i.e. he is serving others): "he was equal with God but emptied himself, having taken the form of a slave" (Phil 2:6-7), "He came to serve" (Mark 10:45). And prior to this choice, he was the "one Lord, through whom are all things" (1 Cor 8:6, cf. Deut 6:4, Romans 11:36). Being Lord is a function of a deity over all created things:

In 1 Corinthians 15:26-27, God puts all things (i.e. all created things) under Jesus' feet, God subjects all things (i.e. all created things) to Jesus. This shows 2 uncreated persons: God (the Father in context) and Jesus (the Lord in the text, having all things under his feet/subject to his rule/dominion/lordship)

("every knee bends to me i.e. to the Lord God", based on context (Isaiah 45:23 LXX) every knee bends in the name of Jesus and every tongue confesses Jesus is Lord to God the Father's glory" Philippians 2:10-11). Paul applies the OT "YHWH text" to Jesus and the Father in Philippians 2:10-11, equating Jesus and the Father to the 1 Lord God of Isaiah 45. 

there is only one God, and he is the one Lord of the Shema (Lord our God [Elohim], Lord[Adonai] is one)

According to Paul, the Father is the one God (Elohim] and Jesus is the one Lord (Adonai) in 1 Corinthians 8:6. That is 1 God, 1 Lord, the one Lord God, not 2 Gods, 2 Lords.

The most often quoted OT passage in the NT is Psalm 110 and Paul never quoted it.

The most often quoted OT passage applied to Jesus in Paul's letters is YHWH (Adonai, not adoni) texts.

Why would i interpret Adonai texts as adoni texts? That suggestion is promoting eisegesis. Biblical texts should always be interpreted in context. 

The Two Powers ancient Jewish belief

According to the Gospel of John, the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for blasphemy because Jesus, a human being, claimed to be God (John 10:33). 

YHWH prays to YHWH. Jesus (who is YHWH) prays to the Father (who is YHWH) in the NT. In the Bible, YHWH does not only pray to another YHWH, YHWH who is on earth also sends ''sulfur and fire'' from YHWH who is in heaven.

Genesis 19:24
Then Jehovah rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from Jehovah out of heaven.

The Two Powers theology (Alan Segal, James Mcgrath et al.) in the first century A.D. held that Two Yahwehs (one in heaven and one visiblel in the earth) coexisted. This was not considered a heresy in Judaism until the latter part of the second century A.D.

What makes the Father and Jesus "God" (Elohim) is everything else what Yahweh is, in the Hebrew Bible. It is not about what does not make God God, such as the human essence as well as having a God. The human Jesus, him having a God does not negate his being also God in the same way that the human Moses (and others who also participate in the divine nature) does not negate his being also god.

Moses is a generic god, made so by Yahweh, who is the God of Israel and who is explicitly described as the "God of gods" in Scripture". Thus, Moses' godhood is different from that of what Jesus himself possesses. Jesus is the same God as Yahweh. In John 20:28, Jesus acknowledges that he is both Lord and God. Jesus is "God" , who has his own Father also as his own "God" (cf. Hebrews 1:8-9) manifests the age-old Jewish belief that Yahweh in heaven interacts with his angel (i.e. messenger) who is Yahweh on earth (Genesis 19:24). These 2 YHWHs are the same God, they are the one God manifesting as 2 distinct persons in 2 different localities: in heaven and on earth. This Scripture from both the Old and New Testaments and its ancient witness from historical Jewish sources.

John is Elijah, Jesus is Lord (YHWH) 

The God of Jesus, the Father, acknowledges Jesus is "God" in Hebrews 1:8. In Romans 10:9-13, Paul equates Jesus with the OT Lord ( = YHWH). Jesus is the same God as the Father not in the sense that Jesus is his own God / not in the sense that the Father is Jesus. Jesus and the Father both share in the same exact name "the name above all names" (i.e. YHWH) and receive the same exact worship , together as a unit, in Philippians 2:9-11, Revelation 14:4, 20:6. Logically, 2 distinct persons with the same name of deity offerred the same worship as deity shows that there is a single deity being honoured even if 2 distinct persons feature. When i say that Jesus is the same God as the Father, i am speaking of precisely how Paul equates Jesus with YHWH and also distinguished him as a numerically distinct person from YHWH so that he is not YHWH identified as the Father. The biblical analogy for this is the angel who is YHWH (having the name YHWH in him in the OT) in the earth visible to men without being YHWH in the heavens and John being Elijah. Scripture says John is Elijah even when John is some sense not Elijah:

• Angel is YHWH on earth and angel is not YHWH in heaven
• John is Elijah and John is not Elijah
• Jesus is YHWH and Jesus is not YHWH (the Father)

Matt. 11:14 “And if you are willing to accept it, John himself is Elijah who was to come.”

Joel 2:32
32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved

Romans 10
9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.
13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

John is Elijah, says Scripture, yet in practise no one really treated him as Elijah. Elijah himself appeared to Jesus in Jesus' transfiguration. In this case, John is Elijah but in another sense.

In the case of Jesus Christ, he is Lord ( = YHWH) (Romans 10:9-13) and he did receive the same exact treatment the OT YHWH receives as such religious worship. Although analogous to John-is-Elijah concept in Scripture, Jesus is more conflated to YHWH than John is to Elijah in Scripture which means that in Scripture, Jesus-is-YHWH is more analogous to YHWH-is-God than it is to John-is-Elijah since Jesus receives religious worship as YHWH.