one God, one Lord: New Testament Theology

Jesus is the same God as his Father, not because the Father is Jesus, but because the Father and Jesus are equated to the 1 OT Lord God. 

The NT writers equated these 2 distinct persons: "the Father" and "Jesus Christ" to the OT Yahweh ( who is called both κυριος (Lord) and θεος (God) in the Greek of the Jewish prayer "Shema Yisrael"). This is why in the NT, the Father is called "God the Father" and Jesus Christ is called "Lord Jesus Christ". 

In the NT, the consistent identification of the Father as the OT God and Jesus Christ as the OT Lord is evidence that they are deemed to be the same OT Yahweh (OT Lord God) by the earliest/original Christians in the NT (John 1:1, 20:17, 20:22, 20:28, Romans 10:9-13, 1 Corinthians 1:2, 8:6, Philippians 2:9-11, Jude 1:4, 1:25, Revelation 1:8, 14:4, 20:6).

Acts 2:36 says Jesus is made κυριος (Lord). It means he is not previously Lord. What was he? He chose to become like a slave (i.e. he is serving others): "he was equal with God but emptied himself, having taken the form of a slave" (Phil 2:6-7), "He came to serve" (Mark 10:45). And prior to this choice, he was the "one Lord, through whom are all things" (1 Cor 8:6, cf. Deut 6:4, Romans 11:36). Being Lord is a function of a deity over all created things:

In 1 Corinthians 15:26-27, God puts all things (i.e. all created things) under Jesus' feet, God subjects all things (i.e. all created things) to Jesus. This shows 2 uncreated persons: God (the Father in context) and Jesus (the Lord in the text, having all things under his feet/subject to his rule/dominion/lordship)

("every knee bends to me i.e. to the Lord God", based on context (Isaiah 45:23 LXX) every knee bends in the name of Jesus and every tongue confesses Jesus is Lord to God the Father's glory" Philippians 2:10-11). Paul applies the OT "YHWH text" to Jesus and the Father in Philippians 2:10-11, equating Jesus and the Father to the 1 Lord God of Isaiah 45. 

there is only one God, and he is the one Lord of the Shema (Lord our God [Elohim], Lord[Adonai] is one)

According to Paul, the Father is the one God (Elohim] and Jesus is the one Lord (Adonai) in 1 Corinthians 8:6. That is 1 God, 1 Lord, the one Lord God, not 2 Gods, 2 Lords.

The most often quoted OT passage in the NT is Psalm 110 and Paul never quoted it.

The most often quoted OT passage applied to Jesus in Paul's letters is YHWH (Adonai, not adoni) texts.

Why would i interpret Adonai texts as adoni texts? That suggestion is promoting eisegesis. Biblical texts should always be interpreted in context. 

The Two Powers ancient Jewish belief

According to the Gospel of John, the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for blasphemy because Jesus, a human being, claimed to be God (John 10:33). 

YHWH prays to YHWH. Jesus (who is YHWH) prays to the Father (who is YHWH) in the NT. In the Bible, YHWH does not only pray to another YHWH, YHWH who is on earth also sends ''sulfur and fire'' from YHWH who is in heaven.

Genesis 19:24
Then Jehovah rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from Jehovah out of heaven.

The Two Powers theology (Alan Segal, James Mcgrath et al.) in the first century A.D. held that Two Yahwehs (one in heaven and one visiblel in the earth) coexisted. This was not considered a heresy in Judaism until the latter part of the second century A.D.

What makes the Father and Jesus "God" (Elohim) is everything else what Yahweh is, in the Hebrew Bible. It is not about what does not make God God, such as the human essence as well as having a God. The human Jesus, him having a God does not negate his being also God in the same way that the human Moses (and others who also participate in the divine nature) does not negate his being also god.

Moses is a generic god, made so by Yahweh, who is the God of Israel and who is explicitly described as the "God of gods" in Scripture". Thus, Moses' godhood is different from that of what Jesus himself possesses. Jesus is the same God as Yahweh. In John 20:28, Jesus acknowledges that he is both Lord and God. Jesus is "God" , who has his own Father also as his own "God" (cf. Hebrews 1:8-9) manifests the age-old Jewish belief that Yahweh in heaven interacts with his angel (i.e. messenger) who is Yahweh on earth (Genesis 19:24). These 2 YHWHs are the same God, they are the one God manifesting as 2 distinct persons in 2 different localities: in heaven and on earth. This Scripture from both the Old and New Testaments and its ancient witness from historical Jewish sources.

John is Elijah, Jesus is Lord (YHWH) 

The God of Jesus, the Father, acknowledges Jesus is "God" in Hebrews 1:8. In Romans 10:9-13, Paul equates Jesus with the OT Lord ( = YHWH). Jesus is the same God as the Father not in the sense that Jesus is his own God / not in the sense that the Father is Jesus. Jesus and the Father both share in the same exact name "the name above all names" (i.e. YHWH) and receive the same exact worship , together as a unit, in Philippians 2:9-11, Revelation 14:4, 20:6. Logically, 2 distinct persons with the same name of deity offerred the same worship as deity shows that there is a single deity being honoured even if 2 distinct persons feature. When i say that Jesus is the same God as the Father, i am speaking of precisely how Paul equates Jesus with YHWH and also distinguished him as a numerically distinct person from YHWH so that he is not YHWH identified as the Father. The biblical analogy for this is the angel who is YHWH (having the name YHWH in him in the OT) in the earth visible to men without being YHWH in the heavens and John being Elijah. Scripture says John is Elijah even when John is some sense not Elijah:

• Angel is YHWH on earth and angel is not YHWH in heaven
• John is Elijah and John is not Elijah
• Jesus is YHWH and Jesus is not YHWH (the Father)

Matt. 11:14 “And if you are willing to accept it, John himself is Elijah who was to come.”

Joel 2:32
32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved

Romans 10
9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.
13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

John is Elijah, says Scripture, yet in practise no one really treated him as Elijah. Elijah himself appeared to Jesus in Jesus' transfiguration. In this case, John is Elijah but in another sense.

In the case of Jesus Christ, he is Lord ( = YHWH) (Romans 10:9-13) and he did receive the same exact treatment the OT YHWH receives as such religious worship. Although analogous to John-is-Elijah concept in Scripture, Jesus is more conflated to YHWH than John is to Elijah in Scripture which means that in Scripture, Jesus-is-YHWH is more analogous to YHWH-is-God than it is to John-is-Elijah since Jesus receives religious worship as YHWH.

The human Jesus: The Multi-Layered Meaning of John 1:1 [Part 1]

Jesus as God's spokeperson: The logos as the word' (speech) of God 

In the beginning, there was the logos (i.e. the word) which was spoken by God

In the O.T., the word (logos) came to the prophets (Micah 1:1 LXX, Ezekiel 1:3 LXX, Zachariah 7:8 LXX). The word (logos) came to the angels too (John 10:35).

John 10:35 (NRSV) If those to whom the word of God came were called ‘gods’—and the scripture cannot be annulled. 

The phrase ''to whom the word of God came'' is ὁ λόγος τοῦ Θεοῦ ἐγένετο in Greek. This meant that prophets and angels were spokepersons in behalf of God, speaking the words of God to the people in behalf of God.  Jesus was like them in that Jesus also is God's spokeperson. All of these received the word of God and shared them to the people. 

Jesus is ''the Word'' because instead of God uttering words through his own voice, God speaks through a person, Jesus Christ. Jesus is way better than the other spokepersons of God (i.e. the prophets and the angels) because 

If the logos became flesh, it only means that the logos evolved (changed into something) from the utterance of God (giving of the message) to the utterance of the messenger: ''Whoever does not love me does not keep my words. And the word that you hear is not mine but the Father’s who sent me.'' (John 14:24)

''He Saw His glory'': Isaiah saw the glory of the Servant of YHWH

1. John 12:41 is related to John 12:40 (where Isaiah 6:10 was quoted) because Isaiah was referring to verse 41. John wrote ''Isaiah said this'' (ταῦτα εἶπεν Ἠσαίας). The antecedent of the pronoun ταῦτα was the words in verse 41 (which was a quotation from Isaiah 6:10)

2. Isaiah recorded the words of the Lord in Isaiah 6:10 because 'he saw his glory'' (ὅτι εἶδεν τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ). In Isaiah 6:1, 3, Isaiah saw ''the Lord'' and ''his glory'' that filled the whole earth.  In John 12:41, John was saying that Isaiah saw the glory of the Lord Jesus (i.e. the Lord's glory which filled the whole earth). To emphasise this, John said ''and spoke about him'' (καὶ ἐλάλησεν περὶ αὐτοῦ), that is, Isaiah spoke about Jesus as the Lord whose glory he had seen in Isaiah 6.

3. It's most likely that John 12:41 is referring to an ancient targum that existed prior to the advent of Christ. The Targum of Jonathan (TJ) which is dated circa 150 B.C.E - 350 C.E.  had the reading ''I saw the glory of the Lord'' in Isaiah 6:1 which is very similar to what John 12:41 has (''Isaiah...saw his glory'').

Targum: Isaiah said that he ''saw the glory of the Lord'' (Isaiah 1:6 TJ)

NT: Isaiah said this because he saw his glory and spoke about him (John 12:41 NRSV)

1. The Greek word ''doxa'' means "the condition of being bright or shining, brightness, splendor, radiance" and the idea, "honor as enhancement or recognition of status or performance, fame, recognition, renown, honor, prestige''. (Doxa, BDAG 257-258, 1 and 3). 

2. In Isaiah 6:1, 3 the glory of the Lord must be understood as something visible (such as radiance, brightness) because in the context Isaiah had spoken of seeing the Lord.

3. In the Pentateuch, the glory of the Lord refers to the face of the Lord which when seen, the one who sees will experience death:

Exodus 33:18, 20 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

18 Moses said, “Show me your glory, I pray.”... 20 But,” he said, “you cannot see my face; for no one shall see me and live.”

4. In Ezekiel, the glory of the Lord was not seen. What was seen was the appearance of the likeness of the glory of the Lord. 

Ezekiel 1:28 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

 ''Like the bow in a cloud on a rainy day, such was the appearance of the splendor all around. This was the appearance of the likeness of the glory of the Lord. When I saw it, I fell on my face, and I heard the voice of someone speaking.''

 

5. In Isaiah 6, Isaiah saw the Lord but he did not die. It could be that Isaiah only saw the likeness of the glory of the Lord (similar to what Ezekiel saw). 

1. John 12:41 used the same phraseology found in the Septuagint of Isaiah 6:1, 6:3. The only difference is the inflection:

  

Isaiah 6:1     accusative case    (ten doxes auto)

John 12:41   genitive case        (ten doxan auto)

2. Isaiah had τῆς δόξης αὐτοῦ occurred twice (2x) in the Septuagint of Isaiah 6 ( in v. 1 and v. 3).

1. The Servant of the Lord had no attractive appearance, had no form or majesty (in contrast to the enthroned Lord in Isaiah 6 where the Lord, the King, was full of glory (brightness and majesty). 

2. The Servant of the Lord  (Jesus Christ) in Isaiah 53 shares in the name of the Lord ( =YHWH): 

Romans 10:9, 12-14, 16 (NRSV)

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him. 13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”...14 But how are they to call on one in whom they have not believed? And how are they to believe in one of whom they have never heard? for Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our message?”

 

1.  Yhwh is described as exalted (ןיגבה) (way-yig-bah) in Isaiah 5:16, high (רם) (ram) and lifted up (ונשא) (we-nis-sa) in Isaiah 6:1
2.  The servant of Yhwh is also high ( ירום) (ya-rum), lifted up (ונשא) (we-nis-sa), and exalted ( וגבה) (we-ga-bah) in Isaiah 52:13
3. The servant of Yhwh in Isaiah 52:13 and Yhwh himself in Isaiah 6:1 have the same description of being ''high, exalted, and lifted up''. Isaiah saw the glory of Yhwh in the person of the exalted Yhwh's servant. In the context of Isaiah 12:41, Jesus said that Yhwh is seen when one sees Jesus. 

John 12:45 (NRSV)


And whoever sees me sees him who sent me.
 

1. The disciples saw the glory of Jesus ''like that of a unique son of a father'' (δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός). (John 1:14), when Jesus did miracles (John 2:11) and when God raised Jesus from the dead.

2. Isaiah saw the glory of the Lord Jesus both before became in the likeness of men and after God raised him from the dead. The glory of the Lord Jesus pre-incarnation and post-incarnation is just the same brightness which he himself possessed with the Father before creation occurred (John 17:5).

God the Father:

Habakkuk 3:4 (NRSV)

The brightness was like the sun;

    rays came forth from his hand,

    where his power lay hidden.

Jesus: 

Revelation 19:16 (NRSV)

 In his right hand he held seven stars, and from his mouth came a sharp, two-edged sword, and his face was like the sun shining with full force.

3. Jesus wanted his disciples to see his glory, which is the glory ''like that of a unique son of a father'' (δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός). (John 1:14).

4. There is one instance in the gospel of seeing the glory of God (John 11:40). 

John 11:40 (NRSV)

Jesus said to her, “Did I not tell you that if you believed, you would see the glory of God?”

The case in John 11:40 still ascribed glory to Jesus because earlier in John 10:4 it says that the sickness of Lazarus is "for the glory of God''and that "for the purpose of glorifying [ἵνα δοξασθῇ] the Son of God".

John 10:4 (Literal Standard Version)

and Jesus having heard, said, “This ailment is not to death, but for the glory of God, that the Son of God may be glorified through it. (ἀλλ' ὑπὲρ τῆς δόξης τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα δοξασθῇ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ δι' αὐτῆς). 

John's gospel was written in A.D. 90. He wasn't alone who applied OT YHWH texts to Jesus Christ. The earliest Aramaic speaking Christians recorded in Pauline epistles (circa A.D. 49 - 61) already viewed Jesus as highly exalted, as one who shares in the name of the Lord ( = Yhwh):

1 Corinthians 1:2 (NRSV)

''To the church of God that is in Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, together with all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both their Lord and ours''

 Philippians 2:9 (NRSV) 

Therefore God also highly exalted him and gave him the name that is above every name,

When did Isaiah see the glory of the Lord Jesus, the Servant of YHWH? 

1.  When the Lord Jesus was existing in the form of God (prior to becoming in the likeness of men):

form of God forms an inclusio with glory of God in the Christ-poem (vv. 6, 11).

   (2:6)   Form of God      

   (2:11)  Glory of God    

• The Greek word ''morphe'' means “form, outward appearance, shape.” (BDAG, p. 659)

• The Greek word ''doxa'' means "the condition of being bright or shining, brightness, splendor, radiance" and the idea, "honor as enhancement or recognition of status or performance, fame, recognition, renown, honor, prestige''. (Doxa, BDAG 257-258, 1 and 3).

Philippians 2:6-7 (NRSV)

6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be exploited, 7 but emptied himself, taking the form of a slave, being born in human likeness. And being found in human form,

2. After Lord Jesus was risen:

1 Corinthians 2:8 (NRSV)

None of the rulers of this age understood this; for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.

Luke 24:26 (NRSV)

 Was it not necessary that the Messiah should suffer these things and then enter into his glory?”

Acts 3:13 (NRSV)

The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our ancestors has glorified his servant Jesus, whom you handed over and rejected in the presence of Pilate, though he had decided to release him.

The congregation of God (אֵ֑ל בַּעֲדַת־) in the Hebrew Bible

Deuteronomy 32:8

Jewish scholars say that ''sons of Israel'' was a correction, not the original text. Even those who interpreters who accepted the reading ''Israel'' cannot explain it:

''In verse 8, instead of establishing the territories according to the number of minor gods (למספר בני אלהים), MT and SP have Elyon establishing territories based on the number of Israelites (לְמִסְפַּר בְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל). Replacing “sons of god” with the neutral “sons of Israel” avoids the theological problem of multiplicity in the divine realm, but it obfuscates much of the message of vv. 8-9. The original point was that each land has its own territorial god, but what does the corrected text with “sons of Israel” mean? Traditional commentators addressed this problem in various ways. Rashi and Pseudo-Jonathan suggest it refers to the 70 sons of Jacob who went down to Egypt (Gen 46) and the corresponding seventy nations of Genesis 10. Rashbam and Bekhor Shor suggest it refers to the twelve tribes who replace the twelve Canaanite nations. Surprisingly, ibn Ezra declares it to be a secret (סוד). In short, the theological correction creates a serious contextual problem—the meaning of the verse is no longer clear.'' (Are There Gods, Angels, and Demons in Deuteronomy? Prof. Jonathan Ben-Dov).

Very ancient variants of Deuteronomy 32:8 had two different readings:

1. The Septuagint had ''angels of God''
2. Dead Sea Scrolls had ''sons of God''

Source: A Fragment of the "Song of Moses" (Deut. 32) from Qumran

Patrick W. Skehan, 1954

There are many angels but Revelation 8:2 singled out 7 angels specifically for a purpose. Likewise, 70 angels were singled out among the many angels. Psalm 82 confirmed this. The Targums had ''angels'' in Psalm 82 even when referencing the leaders of Israel: "I said, as angels are ye accounted".

''sons of Israel'' in Deut 32:8 doesn't make sense. There is no text saying that nations in the earth had been divided (assigned) to the ''sons of Israel'' (i.e. Jacob = Israel). The text itself said that Israel was one of the many nations that had been divided! Israel was not assigned to itself. Yahweh was assigned to Israel!

The oldest variants (sons of God/angels) of Deuteronomy 32:8 makes a lot of sense. For instance, Daniel 12:1, the angel Michael was the great prince who is ''standing for the sons of your people'' (Literal Standard Version), '' who has charge of your people'' (English Standard Version), ''who watches over your people'' (NETBible). That's why in the CEV they had translated Deuteronomy as ''that God Most High gave land to every nation. He assigned a guardian angel to each of them''.

Job 1:6, 2:1, 38:7

The ancient Targum of the Hebrew Bible (circa 300- 201 B.C.E.) had ''companies of angels'' (מַלְאֲכֵ֣י אֱלֹהִ֔ים) in Job 1:6 and Job 2:1. (11q tArgum of Job). And in Job 38:7 it also had ''angels of God'' (םיהלא ינב as אהלא יכאלמ) instead of ''sons of God'' The Targum agrees with the Septuagint.

The Greek Septuagint never mentioned '''sons of God'' but only ''angels of God''. of Job 1:6, Job 2:1, 37:8 also had ''angels of God''

Job 1:6 (LXX): καὶ ὡς ἐγένετο ἡ ἡμέρα αὕτη καὶ ἰδοὺ ἦλθον οἱ ἄγγελοι τοῦ θεοῦ παραστῆναι ἐνώπιον τοῦ κυρίου καὶ ὁ διάβολος ἦλθεν μετ᾽ αὐτῶν
Job 2:1 (LXX): ἐγένετο δὲ ὡς ἡ ἡμέρα αὕτη καὶ ἦλθον οἱ ἄγγελοι τοῦ θεοῦ παραστῆναι ἔναντι κυρίου καὶ ὁ διάβολος ἦλθεν ἐν μέσῳ αὐτῶν παραστῆναι ἐναντίον τοῦ κυρίου
Job 38:7 (LXX): ὅτε ἐγενήθησαν ἄστρα, ᾔνεσάν με φωνῇ μεγάλῃ πάντες ἄγγελοί μου.

Deut 32:34 LXX, Hebrews 1:6 

The NRSV followed the Dead Sea Scrolls. 4QDeutq has ''worship him all you gods'' (whštḥww lw kl 'lhym). 

worship him, all you gods! (Deuteronomy 32:34 NRSV)

The Septuagint has ''angels of God'' instead of ''gods' (which would be ''Θεοί in Greek and 'lhym in Hebrew). Hebrews 1:6 quoted the LXX word for word. 

Καὶ προσκυνησάτωσαν αὐτῷ πάντες ἄγγελοι θεοῦ (Hebrews 1:6)
καὶ ἐνισχυσάτωσαν αὐτῷ πάντες ἄγγελοι θεοῦ (Deuteronomy 32:34 LXX)

The reading of the Dead Sea Scrolls ''gods'' ('lhym) is ancient (c. 250-200 B.C.E.). The reading of the Septuagint ''angels of God'' is also equally ancient (280 B.C.E.). The reading of the Masoretic text written by Masoretes (Jewish scribe-scholars is late (c. A.D. 700 -1000).

(4QDeut) of "Deuteronomy 32:43 has 'let all God’s angels worship him' while the Masoretic text does not." The New American Commentary agrees. Likewise, the NLT translation notes and ESV translation notes show that the DSS generally agrees with the LXX against the MT on the parts of this verse (Is it corruption of the LXX for adding Deut 32:43 or of the Masoretic for lacking it as quoted in Hebrews 1:6?, Thaddeus, 2015).

Psalm 8:5, Hebrews 2:7 

The Masoretic text of Psalm 8:5 had אֱלֹהִים (elohim, God/gods). In fact, all extant Hebrew Manuscripts had אֱלֹהִים in Psalm 8:5. The LSV (Literal Standard Version) followed the Hebrew reading while the NET Bible followed the Septuagint. Hebrews 2:7 also followed the Septuagint.

Literal Standard Version
You make him a little lower than the gods [[or God]], And surround him with glory and majesty.
NET Bible
and make them a little less than the heavenly beings? You grant mankind honor and majesty;

The Jewish English translation JPS Tanakh 1917 agrees with the Septuagint, than the Hebrew: 

JPS Tanakh 1917
Yet Thou hast made him but little lower than the angels, And hast crowned him with glory and honour.

Hebrews 2:7 had ''angels'' (ἀγγέλους) which agrees with the Septuagint: ἠλάττωσας αὐτὸν βραχύ τι παρ᾽ ἀγγέλους (Psalm 8:5 LXX).

ἠλάττωσας αὐτὸν βραχύ τι παρ' ἀγγέλους (Hebrews 2:7 NA27).

The Douay-Rheims Bible (from Latin) agrees also with the Septuagint in using ''angelis'' (angels):

 ''minuisti eum paulo minus ab angelis'', showing that the Old Latin (Vetus Latina, 2nd century C.E. followed the LXX reading). Hebrews 2:7 itself from the 1st century A.D. followed the Septuagint reading of ''angels'' when it quoted Psalm 8:5. The signifance of this is that ''gods'' in the original Hebrew refers to ''angels'' according to ancient translations and the New Testament.

Other Hebrew Bible confirms this:

1. Exodus 15:11: “Who is like you, O YHWH, among the gods?,” Psalm 95:3 states, “For YHWH is a great god, and a great King above all gods” (כִּי אֵל גָּדוֹל יְהוָה וּמֶלֶךְ גָּדוֹל עַל־כָּל־אֱלֹהִֽים).
2. Psalm 29:1: “Give to YHWH, O sons of gods, give to YHWH glory and strength” (הָבוּ לַֽיהוָה בְּנֵי אֵלִים הָבוּ לַיהוָה כָּבוֹד וָעֹֽז).
3. Psalm 89.7 “For whom in the skies can be compared to YHWH? Who among the sons of god/gods may be likened to YHWH…?” (כִּי מִי בַשַּׁחַק יַעֲרֹךְ לַיהוָה יִדְמֶה לַיהוָה בִּבְנֵי אֵלִים).

Quotation taken from Michael D. Coogan, Marc Z. Brettler, Carol Newsom, and Pheme Perkins, The New Oxford Annotated Bible New Revised Standard Version (Oxford: Oxford Univ Press, 2009).

''The god of Israel (whether this be YHWH or El) is designated as אֵל עֶלְיֽוֹן, “the Most High god” (e.g., Gen.14:18-19; Ps. 78:35; cf. Ps. 82:6), because there are other lower gods in his pantheon. These gods obey and pay deference to YHWH because he is the supreme god of the pantheon. YHWH is the “god of gods” ( אֵל אֱלֹהִים), i.e., the “greatest god” (Josh. 22:22), just as Artaxerxes was the “greatest king” (מֶלֶךְ מַלְכַיָּא; Ezra. 7:12) or Canticles is the “greatest song” (שִׁיר הַשִּׁירִים; Song of Songs 1:1) (The Early History of God, Mark S. Smith, 34).

Logos Christology in the 2nd Century A.D.

The gospel of John was written circa 90 AD. The Logos Christology became prominent in the early and middle 2nd second century A.D. 

The early church fathers who were Native Greek speakers deemed γενής in μονογενής as "begotten''. Tertullian spoke of Christ as "unigenitus'' because alone genitus of God [Against Praxeas VII]. The Greek fathers like Justin Martyr used μονογενὴς in the context of the begetting of the Son before all creatures (Dialogue to Trypho, 105).

The Logos and Wisdom are the same thing in the Septuagint

who hast made all things with thy word,

ho poiesas ta panta en logo sou Wisdom 9:1 LXX

ὁ ποιήσας τὰ πάντα ἐν λόγῳ σου

Thine Almighty word leaped down from heaven out of thy royal throne, as a fierce man of war into the midst of a land of destruction,

ὁ παντοδύναμός σου λόγος ἀπ’ οὐρανῶν ἐκ θρόνων βασιλείων ἀπότομος πολεμιστὴς εἰς μέσον τῆς ὀλεθρίας ἥλατο γῆς ξίφος ὀξὺ τὴν ἀνυπόκριτον ἐπιταγήν σου φέρων. Wisdom 18:15 LXX

I came out of the mouth of the most High,

ego apo stomatos uphistou exegthon 

ἐγὼ ἀπὸ στόματος ὑψίστου ἐξῆλθον Sirach 24:3 LXX

Jesus Christ is both Logos and Wisdom in the Greek New Testament

''James Dunn has said , "What pre - Christian Judaism said of Wisdom and Philo also of the Logos , Paul and the others say of Jesus.'' (Discovering the Way of Wisdom: Spirituality in the Wisdom Literature, By Edward M. Curtis, John J. Brugaletta, 2004).

In the New Testament, Jesus was called ''sophia'' (feminine word for Wisdom) in 1 Corinthians 1:24 and its counterpart ''logos'' (masculine word for Word) in John 1:1, 1:14

John was using ἐγένετο in its denotation "to come into existence" or "was made" (1:3, 1:10 NASB/NKJV). The Word "came into human existence (sarxi egeneto) and dwelt among us 1:14ab). It refers to the new existence of the Word (who was already God (theos) in 1:1c) as human (sarx). The same sense which is in the majority of English translations (the Word became flesh - NRSV, NASB, ESV). Also in other Ancient Versions, like that of the Old Latin (Vetus Latina) of the 2nd century A.D. and Vulgate (et Verbum caro factum 1:14a). In Syriac: (ܘܡܠܬܐ ܒܤܪܐ ܗܘܐ ܘܐܓܢ) (the Miltha (the Word) ܒܤܪܐ [became] flesh. 1:14a).

"From that time on, Wisdom appeared on earth and lived among us." Baruch 3:37 (GNT with Apocrypha, 1996)

Wisdom is only/uniquely begotten in the Septuagint

Wisdom was κτισο [created] ρπος αιονος [before the ages] [Proverbs 8:22 LXX]. Verse 25 says that the way she was created was by being γενναο [begotten]. Thus, Wisdom was a child/offspring of God, sharing in his divine nature. In the Deuterocanon, Wisdom was also created before all things were made (Sirach 1:4).

The context of Proverbs 8 shows that εκτισεν (to create) is specifically referring to the creation of an offpspring (γενναο) in verse 25. In the Hebrew of verse 30, Wisdom is indeed an offspring for she is described as "nursling", who is daily with God, who begat her before the ages (προς αιονους) in vv. 24-25.

In the Deuterocanon, Wisdom was ''uniquely begotten or only begotten'' (μονογενης) (Wisdom of Solomon 7:27 LXX). 

Jesus Christ is only/uniquely begotten in the Greek New Testament

In the New Testament, Jesus was called ''sophia'' (feminine word for Wisdom) in 1 Corinthians 1:24 and its counterpart ''logos'' (masculine word for Word) in John 1:1, 1:14.

In the second century C.E., Christians who were native Greek speakers also understood the Greek word monogenes as ''only begotten'' or ''uniquely begotten'' (i.e. the only one begotten differently from others). In the Gospel of John, monogenes (1:14, 1:18) occurred in close proximity with other sons who were also described as ''begotten'' (egennethesan) of God (John 1:12-13). In this case, monos in monogenes should be seen as ''unique'' (i.e. alone of its kind, single in category): ''uniquely begotten.'' In  In John 1:18, Jesus is called  both ''God'' and ''uniquely begotten''( in the bosom of the Father''). [ ''only begotten God'' NASB]. ''only begotten God'' meant ''existed as God'' same as in verse 1 (''The Word was God''). 

Jesus was the only one begotten before time began (i.e. eternally begotten). The word ''begotten'' was used to indicate ''sonship'' (see monogenes with huios in John 3:16, 18). And time was not involved in this begetting. Time was created. All things (including time) came into being through the Logos and not one thing came into being without the Logos (John 1:3).

 John 1:1 and John 1:18 forms an inclusio:

The Word was God John 1:1c A
Only begotten God John 1:18b B

 

in the bosom of the Father John 1:18c B 

The Word existed with God John 1:1b A

 

It also forms a chiastic structure (A-B-B-A), which also Alpha, Beta, Beta, Alpha represents the transliteration of "father" in Aramaic, a reference to God the Father. 

The Word who was God was the selfsame only begotten (uniquely begotten) before all things came into being (v. 3).

Asexual generation

The begetting of the Son is also asexual (involves no sexual activity) similar to the virgin birth. This sonship/ begetting was unique because it was asexual (no sexual activity), only the Father was involved in this begetting.

Begotten only carries genetic sense

The Father is unbegotten since no is above him. It is assumed. Everyone agrees with it anyways. The Father has no origin. The Son came from the Father means the Son does not exist apart from the Father, the Son got the Father's essence. We came from our parents and we got their genes.

''begotten'' is not used as an action verb (even though in reality it is a finite verb) when it is used with the phrase ''before time began''. The reason for this is that time doesn't apply to ''before time'' so the sense of ''begotten'' (having a beginning) doesn't apply as well. Only its genetic sense apply. One who is begotten is produced but this production is different from making a paper from a tree. Being begotten entails the passing of nature from parent to offspring. Thus, being begotten before time meant existing as literal offspring of God (sharing in his own nature, like a child shares in his parent's nature) before time. In our world, this refers to the law of biogenesis (like begets like). The early church in the 2nd century A.D. up to the 4th century A.D. also spoke of Jesus having the substance (i.e. nature) of God. 

Logical Possibility

1. Meaning of Eternity in Eternal Generation of the Logos

God created time. But before time began, God was doing something. What verb tense would we use to refer to the actions of God prior to the creation of time? The Septuagint and the Greek New Testament used the phrases "before the ages" and "before time" in the context when God was doing something. "eternally begotten" is just "begetting outside time". Eternity refers to the state of existence apart from time. Yet the Bible uses verbs in the past tense and present tense to refer to the actions of God before time was created. If we would like to be consistent, then, this Biblical usage of time in reference to God's actions before time should also be illogical, an impossibility, and contradiction but it isn't.

Whatever God did (past tense) before time began can be understood as an action without beginning or ending (eternal). All God's actions , whatever the verbs are, had the same sense of ''existed before time'' without reference to a beginning since there is no time involved in the actions. The Son was begotten before time meant the Son existed before time just as God chose, loved, foreknown, etc. before time began. 

The Son was begotten before time meant the Son existed without beginning, just as God created and begotten Wisdom before time meant Wisdom existed without beginning. Past actions before time began merely refers to existence without beginning regardless of the verbs used. In other words, the action words (verbs) with its tenses that indicated a beginning  (i.e. time) does not apply to those actions God himself did before time began. 

''begotten'' is not used as an action verb (even though it is a verb) when it is used with ''before time began'', simply because time doesn't apply so the sense of ''begotten'' (having a beginning) doesn't apply as well. The word ''begotten before time began'' meant ''existed before time began''. Nothing more, nothing less. And anything that existed before time began is ''eternal''.

When we say that Jesus is ''eternally begotten'', what we mean is that the Jesus as ''the Son'' has ''existed before time began'' (i.e. there's no time when Jesus wasn't God's son). God has many begotten sons (John 1:12-13) but Jesus was the ''only son of his kind'' (ho huios, ho monogenes, John 3:16) because only Jesus was begotten before all things (including time) came into being (cf. John 1:3, 1:18). 

Another interpretation of ''eternal''in regard to an action (always happening and never had began). The Son's begetting being eternal is similar to the radiance being eternal because the light from where it comes from is eternal (Hebrews 1:3, Wisdom 7:26-27 LXX).

2. Eternal Begetting is a miracle

Fire is the Son's original essence prior to his incarnation. This is exactly Yahweh's essence in the O.T. This is not illogical /logically impossible because Adam himself came from the ''dust'' of the earth and Eve came from the ''rib'' of Adam. Who among us today came from ribs and soil? No one. That kind of generation was unique to Adam and Eve. So who among the sons of God was unquely begotten except The Son of God, who is begotten before time began?

The Relationship of the many lords and the one Lord in 1 Corinthians 8:5-6

1 Corinthians 8:5

New Revised Standard Version

5 Indeed, even though there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as in fact there are many gods and many lords—

In 1 Corinthians 8:5, Paul spoke of the ''so-called gods''. In the very same verse, Paul sets up two locations of the ''so-called gods'': heaven and earth. 

 Paul says that there are so called gods....on earth. Who are these gods on earth? It's logical based on its context that they refer to the many lords because in the first century Roman colony Palestine, the Roman Emperors were gods on earth [1] 

We have biblical evidence/witness that the pagans worship the Emperors (the lords) as gods while on earth: 

Acts 12:21-23

…21 On the appointed day, Herod donned his royal robes, sat on his throne, and addressed the people. 22And they began to shout, “This is the voice of a god, not a man!” 

Yahweh himself was kyrios in Deuteronomy 6:4 (LXX). Yahweh wasn't the only kyrios (lord) in the ancient world as there was many lords (kyrioi). Yahweh was the "lord of lords" (Deuteronomy 10:17). In the Shema, Yahweh was the one kyrios (one lord) of the Isralites. Paul equates Jesus with Yahweh by applying to Jesus Yahweh's own role as the only kyrios in 1 Corinthians 8:6.

1 Corinthians 8:5-6

New Revised Standard Version

5 Indeed, even though there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as in fact there are many gods and many lords— 6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.

"lord'' in the phrases ''one lord'' and ''many lords'' have the same meaning of ''master'.  In the Shema, God alone is the lord/master: 

kyrios estin eis = [the] lord/master is one. 

In 1 Corinthians 8:6, eis kyrios is Jesus Christ. Paul's point is to equate Jesus Christ with the Lord spoken of in the Shema. Further evidence for this is that in the very same verse, Paul applies to Jesus the exact same prepositional phrase ''through him are all things'' which Paul used to God in Romans 11:36.

Notes

[1] The so-called gods on earth were the many lords whilst the so-called gods in heaven were the many gods. In Greco-Roman religion, the deities dwelling high up there were the high gods, such as the Olympian gods (e.g. Zeus, Athena etc.). In Latin, they were called deus. On the other hand, the so-called gods on earth refers to Emperors, human rulers or lords (Latin: dominus). These gods dwelling here on earth were called divus (another term for ''god'' usually ascribed to mortals). Also, Ceasar (circa  A.D. 27) was called ''Augustus'', a title applied to deities in the ancient world. 

The idols refers to both the gods in heaven and the gods on earth, and these gods on earth are referring to the many lords. Statues of Emperors were installed side by side the Greco-Roman gods in the ancient world. These Emperors were being worshiped as lord and god by the Greco-Romans. They offered sacrifices to them. Paul was arguing that these two numerically distinct figures: Jesus and the Father were closely linked in a similar fashion an Emperor (gods on earth called lords) was in union with the transcended god he bore in himself. The Emperor was called by the title or name of the god he was embodying and the people worship the  Emperor for he was a god and he was a god precisely because he manifested the transcended god visibly in himself. For instance, the Emperor Gaius (circa A.D. 37 -41) claimed to be the god Apollo on earth but his bad behaviour shows that he was not a true god. Philo said that the form of a god can't be faked like a coin as Gaius thought he could when he claimed to be the deity but his actions were just inconsistent with how a Paean (a true god) behaved ( Embassy to Gaius 110-14). 

Joel 3:5 LXX in Paul's Letters

In the earliest New Testament texts (Paul's letters), Jesus is identified as the Old Testament (OT) ''Lord''. Paul applies Joel 3:5 LXX (EN: Joel 2:32) to Jesus in Romans 10:13 and 1 Corinthians 1:2. 

Joel 2:32 New Revised Standard Version  

32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the Lord has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the Lord calls.

Romans 10:9-13 New Revised Standard Version  

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For one believes with the heart and so is justified, and one confesses with the mouth and so is saved. 11 The scripture says, “No one who believes in him will be put to shame.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

1 Corinthians 1:2 New Revised Standard Version 2 To the church of God that is in Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, together with all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both their Lord and ours:

  

Analysis of Joel 2:32

Joel 2:32 New Revised Standard Version  

32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the Lord has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the Lord calls.

 Israelites call upon the name of their god (YHWH). Others call upon the name of their god (e.g. Baal). In the Greek text, they call on the name of kurios (the LORD/Lord)

 1 Kings 18:24-26 (NRSV) Then you call on the name of your god and I will call on the name of the Lord; the god who answers by fire is indeed God.” All the people answered, “Well spoken!” Then Elijah said to the prophets of Baal, “Choose for yourselves one bull and prepare it first, for you are many; then call on the name of your god, but put no fire to it.” So they took the bull that was given them, prepared it, and called on the name of Baal from morning until noon, crying, “O Baal, answer us!” But there was no voice, and no answer. They limped about the altar that they had made. 

Note

The Tetragrammaton (the four letter name) יהוה (YHWH) does not exist in extant Greek New Testament manuscripts.  The Jews even prior to the advent of Jesus Christ already used substitutes for the divine name (אדני [adonai] in Hebrew, κυριος in Greek) in Hebrew Bible and Jewish writings. אדני is used in the Isaiah scrolls (120 B.C.E.) found in Qumran. The Elephantine Papyri (5th century B.C.E.) had the Aramaic יהו and the Greek copies of the Hebrew Bible (e.g. Leviticus) such as those found in Qumran (c. 2nd–1st century B.C.E) rendered the divine name phonetically ΙΑΩ ( = יה) as well as in Paleo-Hebrew 𐤉𐤄𐤅𐤄.

Analysis of Romans 10:9-11 

Isaiah 28:16 Brenton Septuagint Translation

Therefore thus saith the Lord, even the Lord, Behold, I lay for the foundations of Sion a costly stone, a choice, a corner-stone, a precious stone, for its foundations; and he that believes on him shall by no means be ashamed.

In Romans 10:11, Paul cites Isaiah 28:16. The ''him'' in Isaiah 28:16 does not refer to the Father but to the Lord Jesus, who is the ''corner-stone''. 

Isaiah 28:16 refers to the Father who lays in Zion (the church) a precious cornerstone for a foundation (Jesus himself) based on New Testament texts: Matthew 21:42; Mark 12:10; Luke 20:17; Acts 4:11; Romans 9:33; Ephesians 2:20; and 1 Peter 2:6-8. 

In Romans 10:11, Paul identifies Jesus as the corner-stone of Isaiah 28:16 (LXX). In Romans 10:13, Paul identifies Jesus as the Lord of Joel 2:32 (LXX). 

Romans 10:9 New Revised Standard Version  

because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Here, the referents God and Jesus are identified, and they are two separate identities. Jesus isn't the God who raised him from the dead. This God was identified by Paul as the God of Jesus and Father of Jesus in the same letter (Romans):

Romans 15:6 New Revised Standard Version

6 so that together you may with one voice glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.

However, Jesus' title ''Lord'' is indicative of deity. Paul identifies Jesus as the ''Lord'' mentioned in Joel 2:32 in Romans 10:13.

Joel 2:32 New Revised Standard Version  

32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the Lord has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the Lord calls.

Romans 10:9-13 New Revised Standard Version  

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For one believes with the heart and so is justified, and one confesses with the mouth and so is saved. 11 The scripture says, “No one who believes in him will be put to shame.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

The Greek conjunction ''gar'' (''for'') occurring in the statements in vv. 10, 12, and 13 all refer back to the statement in v. 9. 

HELPS Word-studies

1063 gár (a conjunction) – for. While "for" is usually the best translation of 1063 (gár), its sense is shaped by the preceding statement – the "A" statement which precedes the 1063 (gár) statement in the "A-B" unit.

verse 9 with 10-11

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

10 For one believes with the heart and so is justified, and one confesses with the mouth and so is saved. 11 The scripture says, “No one who believes in him will be put to shame.”

verse 9 with 12

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.

Note.

 Jesus is called ''Lord of all'' in Acts 10:36

verse 9 with 13

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

Note.

 Paul also applied Joel 2:32 to Jesus in 1 Corinthians 1:2. 

Analysis of 1 Corinthians 1:2

Joel 2:32 New Revised Standard Version  

32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the Lord has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the Lord calls.

1 Corinthians 1:2 New Revised Standard Version 2 To the church of God that is in Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, together with all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both their Lord and ours:

 The Tetragrammaton (the four letter name) ''YHWH'' (Hebrew:  יהוה) is the personal name of the god of Israel. This is the divine name which is being called upon by the Israelites in the Hebrew Bible. It's absent in virtually every extant NT MSS we have in possession today. 

Hebrew: 

            כל שרא יכרא בשם יהוה: 

(all who call upon the name of YHWH)

LXX: 

πας ος αν επικαλεσηται το ονομα κυριου

(all who call upon the name of [the] LORD).  

NT: 

παριν τοις επικαλουμενοις του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου

(all who call upon the name of the Lord of us, Jesus Christ). 

Paul was well aware that ''lord'' in both Joel 2:32 and 1 Corinthians 1:2 refers to ''YHWH'' in the phrase ''calling on the name of the lord''.

In 1 Corinthians 1:2, kurios has the article, indicating that it's being used as a title for Jesus (''lord Jesus'') and since kurios in Joel 3:5 LXX is the written substitute for YHWH, the rendering ''LORD Jesus/Lord Jesus'' would accurately translate the Greek into English. 

kyrios iesous in Hebrew would be: Yahweh Yahoshua (which would be ''Jehovah [who is] Jesus'' in English). 

Note

In English, ''LORD'' and ''Lord'' mean the same thing. They refer to God. This is following an age-old tradition of the Jews who used Adonai (literally, ''My Lords'', when ascribed to YHWH, it becomes ''My Lord'' or simply ''Lord'') as oral/verbal substitute for the Tetragrammaton. In Greek, kurios is the oral/verbal substitute. It's also the written substitute for the divine name in the Greek OT (LXX). In the LXX copies (dating circa 3rd cen. A.D.), kurios is anarthrous (without the definite article). This indicates that kurios is being used as a name, not as a proper noun. 

 The distinction between ''LORD'', ''Lord'' and 'lord'' in English is that ''LORD'' is often used as written substitute for the Tetragrammaton YHWH in the Old Testament English translations. On the other hand, ''Lord'' is often the written substitute for the divine name in English translations of the New Testament and ''lord'' simply refers to any superior, or one who has authority over another/others (master/ruler/husband (Abraham)/angel etc.). As far as i know, all English NT bibles have Jesus as ''Lord'', affirming his being true God.

1. Paul did not write "call on the name of יהוה (YHWH) in 1 Corinthians 1:2 or in any other epistles of his. In our "extant" G.N.T. copies, the divine name יהוה (YHWH) is absent.
2. The word κυριος  (''lord'') was used to Abraham, a land-lord, an angel and many other persons in the Bible. But specifically, the Greek New Testament used the word κυριος (''lord'') as the substitute for the Tetragrammaton יהוה (YHWH) and in English, ''lord'' becomes ''LORD''/''Lord'' to indicate that it's being used as the written substitute for the divine name. 
3. The Hebrew Bible warned about calling upon the name of other gods. Jesus was not another god because the name he possesses was the name of the god of Israel, YHWH: Exodus 23:13 (NRSV): Be attentive to all that I have said to you. Do not invoke the names of other gods; do not let them be heard on your lips.
4. Philippians 2:9-11 teaches the same thing. The latter was worshiped the way YHWH is worshiped. κυριος is anarthrous in Philippians 2:11. In Philippians 2:9-11, κυριος clearly refers to the Tetragrammaton (יהוה) because (1) it is anarthrous and (2) it is the name above all names (3) Paul alluded to Isaiah 45:23 in Romans 14:11. And then, Paul alluded  to Romans 14:11 in Philippians 2:10-11. This showed that Paul was applying Isaiah 45:23 to Jesus in Philippians 2:10-11 through Romans 14:11.  The angel in the Old Testament did have the name of YHWH for the name of YHWH is ''in him''. The difference between this angel and Jesus is that the former was not worshiped the way YHWH is worshiped. 
5. κυριος ιησους ("Lord Jesus").  "Jesus" is the personal name of Jesus and the honorific title κυριος (''lord'') represents divine name יהוה (YHWH) in the phrase "call upon the name of the LORD" (e.g. Genesis 4:26, 1 Kings 18:24, Psalm 116:4, Joel 2:32, Zephania 3:9 etc.) and when it represents the divine name, it is capitalised (either as Lord or LORD). 
6.  How was it (i.e. the phrase ''calling upon the name of the Lord'' when applied to Jesus) used in the N.T.? It is used in baptisms, exorcisms, healings, for salvation and for corporate religious worship, as evident in the book of Acts.
7. Peter said he had nothing but in the name of Jesus, he healed the sick (Peter invoked the name of Jesus, calling upon Jesus himself to heal the sick). So the disciples did not do them through their own abilities, as they merely invoking the name of Jesus (i,e. praying to Jesus), as the gospel said, ''ask Jesus and Jesus will do it' (John 14:13-14)'. "Calling upon the name of the Lord ( = YHWH) is to pray to the Lord ( =YHWH) in the Old Testament. In the New Testament, Jesus is the Lord ( =YHWH) who is being called upon.
8. Everyone call on the name of the Lord Jesus/ Jesus Christ'' means ''everyone praying to the Lord Jesus/Jesus Christ, to ask help from Jesus. ''ask Jesus and Jesus will do it'' (John 14:13-14).  "name" is Hebraism pertaining to the person himself.

LXX: All call on the name of [the] Lord = all pray to the Lord

NT: All call on the name of the Lord Jesus = all pray to the Lord Jesus 

 

      11. Why would God give his own name to another person? In the Old Testament, God's name was placed in the Angel of the Lord. It's all to do with authority. However, did the angel of the Lord receive corporate worship? Was he also made the Lord whose name everyone calls upon? ( cf. Acts 2:21, 2:36).

Questions: 

1. What is the difference between the two? 

Everyone will call upon the Name of the Lord 

Everyone will call upon the Name of the Lord Jesus

2. Romans 14:11 alluded to Isaiah 45:23. Philippians 2:10-11 is also alluding that OT YHWH text. The kurios in the Greek of Isaiah 45 refers to YHWH, then, why is it that suddenly kurios in Philippians 2:9-11 isn't the name above all names (YHWH)?

3. What disqualifies 1 Cor 1:2 and Philippians 2:9-10 for being YHWH texts? They are both YHWH texts through its allusions of the O.T. YHWH texts which speaks of YHWH (represented by κυριος). Other N.T. texts alluded O.T. (did not quote them, yet it's understood that they refer to YHWH, but why when its comes to Jesus, the YHWH texts lose its meaning? For instance, "all calling upon the name of the Lord" in the O.T. refers to prayers to YHWH, then, the N.T. only added the name "Jesus" to it ("all calling upon the name of the Lord Jesus") ,then, suddenly, the sentence no longer refers to the Lord ( = YHWH) ?

Notes:

1. Even if the tetragrammaton is in the autographa, it still would show Jesus is YHWH. The study ''Rendering the Divine Name in Romans 10:13'' (A. Tim Span, et al., 2020) shows exactly that this is the case.

The point is that because a lot of OT YHWH texts were clearly applied to Jesus and obviously if the Tetragrammaton was in it, it would refer to the subject (ie. Jesus). The divine name in the NT would only strengthen the OT YHWH texts applied to Jesus, that Jesus is being referred to as יהוה (YHWH).