Immanuel (God with us): The Multi-Layered Meaning of the Gospel of John [Part 2]

1. ''The Word'' (ho logos) as the risen Christ

In the beginning (the ''first day of the week'', John "the day of the Lord" Revelation 1:10 ),

was the Word (refers to Jesus, the Word of God and the King of Kings in Revelation 19:13). He's the same King of Kings who dwells in unapproachable light in 1 Timothy 6:16, and who ''was manifest in the flesh'' (1 Timothy 3:16)

And the Word was with God The risen Christ had ascended into heaven and had come "into the bosom of the Father" John 1:18. ''pros ton theon'' [(going) to God] is parallel to ''pros ton patera''  ("I am going to the Father" in John 14:28). 

The Word was God (Thomas said to the risen Christ: "My Lord and my God", John 20:28, David said to God: "My God and my Lord", Psalm 35:23).

footnotes:

The prologue parallels the last chapter of the gospel, which had the account of the resurrection, forming an inclusio. The beginning was "the first day of the week" when Christ was resurrected. The light shining in darkess in John 1:4 refers to glory (see John 1:14). δοχα also had the definition of "brightness" (BDAG). The sense is that of "high-light-ing" the good works either of Jesus or of his disciples as well as the resurrection (see the glory in John 17, compare with Philippians 3:20-21). 

2.  ''The Word'' (ho logos) as the pre-incarnate Christ

John 1:1

"In [the] beginning" (ΕΝ ΑΡΧΗ) refers to the beginning when: ''all [things] came into being'' (πάντα... ἐγένετο ). 

"was the Word" refers to the title/name of Jesus before he became flesh (i.e. mortal). 

''with God'' is also accurate translation of ''pros ton theon'' because ''pros'' also refers to ''close proximity'' (i.e. being near to someone). This agrees with John 1:18 wherein Jesus is located in the Father's bosom (recall the beloved apostle reclining on Jesus' bosom in John's gospel in John 13:23).

The Word "was God" with God (i.e. with the only true God, John 17:3). The Word himself is the "only God" (John 1:18 ESV), and is "full of truth" (John 1:14). 

The Greek word related to arche is arches. Internally (i.e. within the gospel of John), arches has occurred 4x and each refers to various ''beginnings''. 

Chiastic Structure (A-A-B-B-C-C) in all occurence of arche(s):

A: John 1:1 arche = Jesus with God

A: John 1:2 arche = Jesus (God) with God

B: John 6:64: arches = Judas ''Iscariot'' (murderer)

B: John 8:44: arches = devil ( = murderer) 

C:John 15:27: arches = discples with Jesus

C: John 16:4: arches = discples with Jesus

footnote:

Judas’ surname is more probably a corruption of the Latin sicarius (“murderer” or “assassin”) than an indication of family origin, suggesting that he would have belonged to the Sicarii, the most radical Jewish group, some of whom were terrorists (https://www.britannica.com/biography/Judas-Iscariot). 

1. John 6:64 when Jesus chose them and knew who will betray him. Jesus knew what is in man (John 1) nd Jesus knows all things. (John ). As God, he knows this from the beginning, for he was God before anything else came into being. As the Logos, nothing is hidden from him (Hebrews ). Jesus already know this before he was betrayed.  The actual betrayal happened many chapters after. 
2. John 8:44 Satan was murderer from the beginning in Genesis, when Adam and Eve surely died. Also, when Abel was killed. The beginning here was in Genesis at least when Adam was already created. But Jesus existed prior to this. Jesus was God in the begginning.
3. John 15:27  witness.....you are with Me from the beginning. The beginning of Jesus' ministry by choosing 1t 12 disciples who testify that he was in the beginningIt alludes John 1:5, witness/testify that i am the Son of God 1:34, they witness about who was in the beginning, John 1:1. 
4. The references in John 15:27 and John 16:4 to arches do not directly but indirectly points to the beginning (en arche) before time began. They tesfify directly about the Son of God (who is himself before time, in the beginning). The 12 disciples (and all other disciples) should testify together with John the Baptist that Jesus ''existed before me''. 
5. John 16:4 I did not say (eipon from lego form which logos also came from) because i was with you. It alludes John 1:1:3. But now he is going back to the Father, with whom he was with in the beginning. the beginning of the ministry was about Jesus as the Son of God and as the Son of God, Jesus was in the beginning of the world. 

A chiastic structure (AA-BB-CC-DD) in the entire gospel of John. All of these speak of Jesus ''pre-existing'' or ''existing before'' something or someone else:

A: John 1:3 Jesus existed before all things came into existence

A: John 1:15 Jesus pre-existed John

B: John 3:13 Son of Man came down from heaven ( compare with John 3:31 Above all because came from heaven)

B:  John 6:51 I am the living bread that came down from heaven. Jesus was "living' in heaven before he came down from heaven

C: John 8:38 Jesus saw God (see also John 6:46)

GC: John 8:58 Abraham saw Jesus

D: John 12:38 Lord, who believe our report. Lord here refers to God.

D:  John 12:41 Isaiah saw Jesus' glory as Lord God

E: John 17:5 Jesus existed with the Father before the world existed

C: John 17:24 God loved Jesus before the foundation of the world

B:  John 20:22 Jesus is the Lord God who breated into man in Genesis 2:7

A: John 20:28 Jesus is the Lord God whom David calls his Lord and God in Psalm 35:23 

Jesus existed before John - Jesus was in the beginning before all things were made but John the Baptist came into existence (John 1:6 there came into existence John from God).

Jesus exists, Abraham had come into existence. Jesus and Abraham was contrasted as to their existence. Jesus exists (the way God exists in Psalm 90:2) while Abraham had a beginning.

Jesus descended from heaven:

The 4th gospel consistently used καταβαίνω (to come down, to descend) literally (John 1:32, 1:33, 1:51, 3:13, 4:47, 4:49, 4:51, 5:4, 5:7, 6:16, 6:33, 6:38, 6:41, 6:42, 6:50, 6:51, 6:58). 

John 1:33 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

33 I myself did not know him, but the one who sent me to baptize with water said to me, ‘He on whom you see the Spirit descend (τὸ πνεῦμα καταβαῖνον) and remain is the one who baptizes with the Holy Spirit.’

John 1:51 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

51 And he said to him, “Very truly, I tell you, you will see heaven (οὐρανὸν ἀνεῳγότα) opened and the angels of God ascending and descending (καταβαίνοντας) upon the Son of Man.”

John 3:13 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

13 No one has ascended into heaven except the one who descended from heaven (ἐκ τοῦ οὐρανοῦ καταβάς), the Son of Man.

1. The Holy Spirit descended from heaven physically in the form of a dove as John himself saw (John 1:32).
2. The angels also appeared physically in the form of humans who were seen by humans (John 20:12). The Old Testament had lots of angelic visits that were so visible to humans. 
3. Jesus also descended from heaven in a physical body when he ''became flesh'' (John 1:14, 3:13).
4.  These three (the Holy Spirit, the angels, and Jesus) were all described as descending from heaven inside the Gospel of John. 
5. They were all pre-existent before they descened from heaven to earth. This is a very strong (cogent) evidence that Jesus was alive in heaven before he became flesh. John 1:1 says that Jesus was pre-existent, not as angel (ἄγγελος) but as God (Θεὸς).

Notes

Layers-of-meaning - a literary technique where an author expects his audience to see additional meaning other than what a literal reading of the text conveys. 

Allusion is basically a reference to something else. It’s when a writer mentions some other work, or refers to an earlier part of the current work.

one God, one Lord: New Testament Theology

Jesus is the same God as his Father, not because the Father is Jesus, but because the Father and Jesus are equated to the 1 OT Lord God. 

The NT writers equated these 2 distinct persons: "the Father" and "Jesus Christ" to the OT Yahweh ( who is called both κυριος (Lord) and θεος (God) in the Greek of the Jewish prayer "Shema Yisrael"). This is why in the NT, the Father is called "God the Father" and Jesus Christ is called "Lord Jesus Christ". 

In the NT, the consistent identification of the Father as the OT God and Jesus Christ as the OT Lord is evidence that they are deemed to be the same OT Yahweh (OT Lord God) by the earliest/original Christians in the NT (John 1:1, 20:17, 20:22, 20:28, Romans 10:9-13, 1 Corinthians 1:2, 8:6, Philippians 2:9-11, Jude 1:4, 1:25, Revelation 1:8, 14:4, 20:6).

Acts 2:36 says Jesus is made κυριος (Lord). It means he is not previously Lord. What was he? He chose to become like a slave (i.e. he is serving others): "he was equal with God but emptied himself, having taken the form of a slave" (Phil 2:6-7), "He came to serve" (Mark 10:45). And prior to this choice, he was the "one Lord, through whom are all things" (1 Cor 8:6, cf. Deut 6:4, Romans 11:36). Being Lord is a function of a deity over all created things:

In 1 Corinthians 15:26-27, God puts all things (i.e. all created things) under Jesus' feet, God subjects all things (i.e. all created things) to Jesus. This shows 2 uncreated persons: God (the Father in context) and Jesus (the Lord in the text, having all things under his feet/subject to his rule/dominion/lordship)

("every knee bends to me i.e. to the Lord God", based on context (Isaiah 45:23 LXX) every knee bends in the name of Jesus and every tongue confesses Jesus is Lord to God the Father's glory" Philippians 2:10-11). Paul applies the OT "YHWH text" to Jesus and the Father in Philippians 2:10-11, equating Jesus and the Father to the 1 Lord God of Isaiah 45. 

there is only one God, and he is the one Lord of the Shema (Lord our God [Elohim], Lord[Adonai] is one)

According to Paul, the Father is the one God (Elohim] and Jesus is the one Lord (Adonai) in 1 Corinthians 8:6. That is 1 God, 1 Lord, the one Lord God, not 2 Gods, 2 Lords.

The most often quoted OT passage in the NT is Psalm 110 and Paul never quoted it.

The most often quoted OT passage applied to Jesus in Paul's letters is YHWH (Adonai, not adoni) texts.

Why would i interpret Adonai texts as adoni texts? That suggestion is promoting eisegesis. Biblical texts should always be interpreted in context. 

The Two Powers ancient Jewish belief

According to the Gospel of John, the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for blasphemy because Jesus, a human being, claimed to be God (John 10:33). 

YHWH prays to YHWH. Jesus (who is YHWH) prays to the Father (who is YHWH) in the NT. In the Bible, YHWH does not only pray to another YHWH, YHWH who is on earth also sends ''sulfur and fire'' from YHWH who is in heaven.

Genesis 19:24
Then Jehovah rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from Jehovah out of heaven.

The Two Powers theology (Alan Segal, James Mcgrath et al.) in the first century A.D. held that Two Yahwehs (one in heaven and one visiblel in the earth) coexisted. This was not considered a heresy in Judaism until the latter part of the second century A.D.

What makes the Father and Jesus "God" (Elohim) is everything else what Yahweh is, in the Hebrew Bible. It is not about what does not make God God, such as the human essence as well as having a God. The human Jesus, him having a God does not negate his being also God in the same way that the human Moses (and others who also participate in the divine nature) does not negate his being also god.

Moses is a generic god, made so by Yahweh, who is the God of Israel and who is explicitly described as the "God of gods" in Scripture". Thus, Moses' godhood is different from that of what Jesus himself possesses. Jesus is the same God as Yahweh. In John 20:28, Jesus acknowledges that he is both Lord and God. Jesus is "God" , who has his own Father also as his own "God" (cf. Hebrews 1:8-9) manifests the age-old Jewish belief that Yahweh in heaven interacts with his angel (i.e. messenger) who is Yahweh on earth (Genesis 19:24). These 2 YHWHs are the same God, they are the one God manifesting as 2 distinct persons in 2 different localities: in heaven and on earth. This Scripture from both the Old and New Testaments and its ancient witness from historical Jewish sources.

John is Elijah, Jesus is Lord (YHWH) 

The God of Jesus, the Father, acknowledges Jesus is "God" in Hebrews 1:8. In Romans 10:9-13, Paul equates Jesus with the OT Lord ( = YHWH). Jesus is the same God as the Father not in the sense that Jesus is his own God / not in the sense that the Father is Jesus. Jesus and the Father both share in the same exact name "the name above all names" (i.e. YHWH) and receive the same exact worship , together as a unit, in Philippians 2:9-11, Revelation 14:4, 20:6. Logically, 2 distinct persons with the same name of deity offerred the same worship as deity shows that there is a single deity being honoured even if 2 distinct persons feature. When i say that Jesus is the same God as the Father, i am speaking of precisely how Paul equates Jesus with YHWH and also distinguished him as a numerically distinct person from YHWH so that he is not YHWH identified as the Father. The biblical analogy for this is the angel who is YHWH (having the name YHWH in him in the OT) in the earth visible to men without being YHWH in the heavens and John being Elijah. Scripture says John is Elijah even when John is some sense not Elijah:

• Angel is YHWH on earth and angel is not YHWH in heaven
• John is Elijah and John is not Elijah
• Jesus is YHWH and Jesus is not YHWH (the Father)

Matt. 11:14 “And if you are willing to accept it, John himself is Elijah who was to come.”

Joel 2:32
32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved

Romans 10
9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.
13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

John is Elijah, says Scripture, yet in practise no one really treated him as Elijah. Elijah himself appeared to Jesus in Jesus' transfiguration. In this case, John is Elijah but in another sense.

In the case of Jesus Christ, he is Lord ( = YHWH) (Romans 10:9-13) and he did receive the same exact treatment the OT YHWH receives as such religious worship. Although analogous to John-is-Elijah concept in Scripture, Jesus is more conflated to YHWH than John is to Elijah in Scripture which means that in Scripture, Jesus-is-YHWH is more analogous to YHWH-is-God than it is to John-is-Elijah since Jesus receives religious worship as YHWH.

The human Jesus: The Multi-Layered Meaning of John 1:1 [Part 1]

Jesus as God's spokeperson: The logos as the word' (speech) of God 

In the beginning, there was the logos (i.e. the word) which was spoken by God

In the O.T., the word (logos) came to the prophets (Micah 1:1 LXX, Ezekiel 1:3 LXX, Zachariah 7:8 LXX). The word (logos) came to the angels too (John 10:35).

John 10:35 (NRSV) If those to whom the word of God came were called ‘gods’—and the scripture cannot be annulled. 

The phrase ''to whom the word of God came'' is ὁ λόγος τοῦ Θεοῦ ἐγένετο in Greek. This meant that prophets and angels were spokepersons in behalf of God, speaking the words of God to the people in behalf of God.  Jesus was like them in that Jesus also is God's spokeperson. All of these received the word of God and shared them to the people. 

Jesus is ''the Word'' because instead of God uttering words through his own voice, God speaks through a person, Jesus Christ. Jesus is way better than the other spokepersons of God (i.e. the prophets and the angels) because 

If the logos became flesh, it only means that the logos evolved (changed into something) from the utterance of God (giving of the message) to the utterance of the messenger: ''Whoever does not love me does not keep my words. And the word that you hear is not mine but the Father’s who sent me.'' (John 14:24)

''He Saw His glory'': Isaiah saw the glory of the Servant of YHWH

1. John 12:41 is related to John 12:40 (where Isaiah 6:10 was quoted) because Isaiah was referring to verse 41. John wrote ''Isaiah said this'' (ταῦτα εἶπεν Ἠσαίας). The antecedent of the pronoun ταῦτα was the words in verse 41 (which was a quotation from Isaiah 6:10)

2. Isaiah recorded the words of the Lord in Isaiah 6:10 because 'he saw his glory'' (ὅτι εἶδεν τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ). In Isaiah 6:1, 3, Isaiah saw ''the Lord'' and ''his glory'' that filled the whole earth.  In John 12:41, John was saying that Isaiah saw the glory of the Lord Jesus (i.e. the Lord's glory which filled the whole earth). To emphasise this, John said ''and spoke about him'' (καὶ ἐλάλησεν περὶ αὐτοῦ), that is, Isaiah spoke about Jesus as the Lord whose glory he had seen in Isaiah 6.

3. It's most likely that John 12:41 is referring to an ancient targum that existed prior to the advent of Christ. The Targum of Jonathan (TJ) which is dated circa 150 B.C.E - 350 C.E.  had the reading ''I saw the glory of the Lord'' in Isaiah 6:1 which is very similar to what John 12:41 has (''Isaiah...saw his glory'').

Targum: Isaiah said that he ''saw the glory of the Lord'' (Isaiah 1:6 TJ)

NT: Isaiah said this because he saw his glory and spoke about him (John 12:41 NRSV)

1. The Greek word ''doxa'' means "the condition of being bright or shining, brightness, splendor, radiance" and the idea, "honor as enhancement or recognition of status or performance, fame, recognition, renown, honor, prestige''. (Doxa, BDAG 257-258, 1 and 3). 

2. In Isaiah 6:1, 3 the glory of the Lord must be understood as something visible (such as radiance, brightness) because in the context Isaiah had spoken of seeing the Lord.

3. In the Pentateuch, the glory of the Lord refers to the face of the Lord which when seen, the one who sees will experience death:

Exodus 33:18, 20 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

18 Moses said, “Show me your glory, I pray.”... 20 But,” he said, “you cannot see my face; for no one shall see me and live.”

4. In Ezekiel, the glory of the Lord was not seen. What was seen was the appearance of the likeness of the glory of the Lord. 

Ezekiel 1:28 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

 ''Like the bow in a cloud on a rainy day, such was the appearance of the splendor all around. This was the appearance of the likeness of the glory of the Lord. When I saw it, I fell on my face, and I heard the voice of someone speaking.''

 

5. In Isaiah 6, Isaiah saw the Lord but he did not die. It could be that Isaiah only saw the likeness of the glory of the Lord (similar to what Ezekiel saw). 

1. John 12:41 used the same phraseology found in the Septuagint of Isaiah 6:1, 6:3. The only difference is the inflection:

  

Isaiah 6:1     accusative case    (ten doxes auto)

John 12:41   genitive case        (ten doxan auto)

2. Isaiah had τῆς δόξης αὐτοῦ occurred twice (2x) in the Septuagint of Isaiah 6 ( in v. 1 and v. 3).

1. The Servant of the Lord had no attractive appearance, had no form or majesty (in contrast to the enthroned Lord in Isaiah 6 where the Lord, the King, was full of glory (brightness and majesty). 

2. The Servant of the Lord  (Jesus Christ) in Isaiah 53 shares in the name of the Lord ( =YHWH): 

Romans 10:9, 12-14, 16 (NRSV)

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him. 13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”...14 But how are they to call on one in whom they have not believed? And how are they to believe in one of whom they have never heard? for Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our message?”

 

1.  Yhwh is described as exalted (ןיגבה) (way-yig-bah) in Isaiah 5:16, high (רם) (ram) and lifted up (ונשא) (we-nis-sa) in Isaiah 6:1
2.  The servant of Yhwh is also high ( ירום) (ya-rum), lifted up (ונשא) (we-nis-sa), and exalted ( וגבה) (we-ga-bah) in Isaiah 52:13
3. The servant of Yhwh in Isaiah 52:13 and Yhwh himself in Isaiah 6:1 have the same description of being ''high, exalted, and lifted up''. Isaiah saw the glory of Yhwh in the person of the exalted Yhwh's servant. In the context of Isaiah 12:41, Jesus said that Yhwh is seen when one sees Jesus. 

John 12:45 (NRSV)


And whoever sees me sees him who sent me.
 

1. The disciples saw the glory of Jesus ''like that of a unique son of a father'' (δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός). (John 1:14), when Jesus did miracles (John 2:11) and when God raised Jesus from the dead.

2. Isaiah saw the glory of the Lord Jesus both before became in the likeness of men and after God raised him from the dead. The glory of the Lord Jesus pre-incarnation and post-incarnation is just the same brightness which he himself possessed with the Father before creation occurred (John 17:5).

God the Father:

Habakkuk 3:4 (NRSV)

The brightness was like the sun;

    rays came forth from his hand,

    where his power lay hidden.

Jesus: 

Revelation 19:16 (NRSV)

 In his right hand he held seven stars, and from his mouth came a sharp, two-edged sword, and his face was like the sun shining with full force.

3. Jesus wanted his disciples to see his glory, which is the glory ''like that of a unique son of a father'' (δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός). (John 1:14).

4. There is one instance in the gospel of seeing the glory of God (John 11:40). 

John 11:40 (NRSV)

Jesus said to her, “Did I not tell you that if you believed, you would see the glory of God?”

The case in John 11:40 still ascribed glory to Jesus because earlier in John 10:4 it says that the sickness of Lazarus is "for the glory of God''and that "for the purpose of glorifying [ἵνα δοξασθῇ] the Son of God".

John 10:4 (Literal Standard Version)

and Jesus having heard, said, “This ailment is not to death, but for the glory of God, that the Son of God may be glorified through it. (ἀλλ' ὑπὲρ τῆς δόξης τοῦ θεοῦ ἵνα δοξασθῇ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ δι' αὐτῆς). 

John's gospel was written in A.D. 90. He wasn't alone who applied OT YHWH texts to Jesus Christ. The earliest Aramaic speaking Christians recorded in Pauline epistles (circa A.D. 49 - 61) already viewed Jesus as highly exalted, as one who shares in the name of the Lord ( = Yhwh):

1 Corinthians 1:2 (NRSV)

''To the church of God that is in Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, together with all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both their Lord and ours''

 Philippians 2:9 (NRSV) 

Therefore God also highly exalted him and gave him the name that is above every name,

When did Isaiah see the glory of the Lord Jesus, the Servant of YHWH? 

1.  When the Lord Jesus was existing in the form of God (prior to becoming in the likeness of men):

form of God forms an inclusio with glory of God in the Christ-poem (vv. 6, 11).

   (2:6)   Form of God      

   (2:11)  Glory of God    

• The Greek word ''morphe'' means “form, outward appearance, shape.” (BDAG, p. 659)

• The Greek word ''doxa'' means "the condition of being bright or shining, brightness, splendor, radiance" and the idea, "honor as enhancement or recognition of status or performance, fame, recognition, renown, honor, prestige''. (Doxa, BDAG 257-258, 1 and 3).

Philippians 2:6-7 (NRSV)

6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God as something to be exploited, 7 but emptied himself, taking the form of a slave, being born in human likeness. And being found in human form,

2. After Lord Jesus was risen:

1 Corinthians 2:8 (NRSV)

None of the rulers of this age understood this; for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.

Luke 24:26 (NRSV)

 Was it not necessary that the Messiah should suffer these things and then enter into his glory?”

Acts 3:13 (NRSV)

The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our ancestors has glorified his servant Jesus, whom you handed over and rejected in the presence of Pilate, though he had decided to release him.

The congregation of God (אֵ֑ל בַּעֲדַת־) in the Hebrew Bible

Deuteronomy 32:8

Jewish scholars say that ''sons of Israel'' was a correction, not the original text. Even those who interpreters who accepted the reading ''Israel'' cannot explain it:

''In verse 8, instead of establishing the territories according to the number of minor gods (למספר בני אלהים), MT and SP have Elyon establishing territories based on the number of Israelites (לְמִסְפַּר בְּנֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל). Replacing “sons of god” with the neutral “sons of Israel” avoids the theological problem of multiplicity in the divine realm, but it obfuscates much of the message of vv. 8-9. The original point was that each land has its own territorial god, but what does the corrected text with “sons of Israel” mean? Traditional commentators addressed this problem in various ways. Rashi and Pseudo-Jonathan suggest it refers to the 70 sons of Jacob who went down to Egypt (Gen 46) and the corresponding seventy nations of Genesis 10. Rashbam and Bekhor Shor suggest it refers to the twelve tribes who replace the twelve Canaanite nations. Surprisingly, ibn Ezra declares it to be a secret (סוד). In short, the theological correction creates a serious contextual problem—the meaning of the verse is no longer clear.'' (Are There Gods, Angels, and Demons in Deuteronomy? Prof. Jonathan Ben-Dov).

Very ancient variants of Deuteronomy 32:8 had two different readings:

1. The Septuagint had ''angels of God''
2. Dead Sea Scrolls had ''sons of God''

Source: A Fragment of the "Song of Moses" (Deut. 32) from Qumran

Patrick W. Skehan, 1954

There are many angels but Revelation 8:2 singled out 7 angels specifically for a purpose. Likewise, 70 angels were singled out among the many angels. Psalm 82 confirmed this. The Targums had ''angels'' in Psalm 82 even when referencing the leaders of Israel: "I said, as angels are ye accounted".

''sons of Israel'' in Deut 32:8 doesn't make sense. There is no text saying that nations in the earth had been divided (assigned) to the ''sons of Israel'' (i.e. Jacob = Israel). The text itself said that Israel was one of the many nations that had been divided! Israel was not assigned to itself. Yahweh was assigned to Israel!

The oldest variants (sons of God/angels) of Deuteronomy 32:8 makes a lot of sense. For instance, Daniel 12:1, the angel Michael was the great prince who is ''standing for the sons of your people'' (Literal Standard Version), '' who has charge of your people'' (English Standard Version), ''who watches over your people'' (NETBible). That's why in the CEV they had translated Deuteronomy as ''that God Most High gave land to every nation. He assigned a guardian angel to each of them''.

Job 1:6, 2:1, 38:7

The ancient Targum of the Hebrew Bible (circa 300- 201 B.C.E.) had ''companies of angels'' (מַלְאֲכֵ֣י אֱלֹהִ֔ים) in Job 1:6 and Job 2:1. (11q tArgum of Job). And in Job 38:7 it also had ''angels of God'' (םיהלא ינב as אהלא יכאלמ) instead of ''sons of God'' The Targum agrees with the Septuagint.

The Greek Septuagint never mentioned '''sons of God'' but only ''angels of God''. of Job 1:6, Job 2:1, 37:8 also had ''angels of God''

Job 1:6 (LXX): καὶ ὡς ἐγένετο ἡ ἡμέρα αὕτη καὶ ἰδοὺ ἦλθον οἱ ἄγγελοι τοῦ θεοῦ παραστῆναι ἐνώπιον τοῦ κυρίου καὶ ὁ διάβολος ἦλθεν μετ᾽ αὐτῶν
Job 2:1 (LXX): ἐγένετο δὲ ὡς ἡ ἡμέρα αὕτη καὶ ἦλθον οἱ ἄγγελοι τοῦ θεοῦ παραστῆναι ἔναντι κυρίου καὶ ὁ διάβολος ἦλθεν ἐν μέσῳ αὐτῶν παραστῆναι ἐναντίον τοῦ κυρίου
Job 38:7 (LXX): ὅτε ἐγενήθησαν ἄστρα, ᾔνεσάν με φωνῇ μεγάλῃ πάντες ἄγγελοί μου.

Deut 32:34 LXX, Hebrews 1:6 

The NRSV followed the Dead Sea Scrolls. 4QDeutq has ''worship him all you gods'' (whštḥww lw kl 'lhym). 

worship him, all you gods! (Deuteronomy 32:34 NRSV)

The Septuagint has ''angels of God'' instead of ''gods' (which would be ''Θεοί in Greek and 'lhym in Hebrew). Hebrews 1:6 quoted the LXX word for word. 

Καὶ προσκυνησάτωσαν αὐτῷ πάντες ἄγγελοι θεοῦ (Hebrews 1:6)
καὶ ἐνισχυσάτωσαν αὐτῷ πάντες ἄγγελοι θεοῦ (Deuteronomy 32:34 LXX)

The reading of the Dead Sea Scrolls ''gods'' ('lhym) is ancient (c. 250-200 B.C.E.). The reading of the Septuagint ''angels of God'' is also equally ancient (280 B.C.E.). The reading of the Masoretic text written by Masoretes (Jewish scribe-scholars is late (c. A.D. 700 -1000).

(4QDeut) of "Deuteronomy 32:43 has 'let all God’s angels worship him' while the Masoretic text does not." The New American Commentary agrees. Likewise, the NLT translation notes and ESV translation notes show that the DSS generally agrees with the LXX against the MT on the parts of this verse (Is it corruption of the LXX for adding Deut 32:43 or of the Masoretic for lacking it as quoted in Hebrews 1:6?, Thaddeus, 2015).

Psalm 8:5, Hebrews 2:7 

The Masoretic text of Psalm 8:5 had אֱלֹהִים (elohim, God/gods). In fact, all extant Hebrew Manuscripts had אֱלֹהִים in Psalm 8:5. The LSV (Literal Standard Version) followed the Hebrew reading while the NET Bible followed the Septuagint. Hebrews 2:7 also followed the Septuagint.

Literal Standard Version
You make him a little lower than the gods [[or God]], And surround him with glory and majesty.
NET Bible
and make them a little less than the heavenly beings? You grant mankind honor and majesty;

The Jewish English translation JPS Tanakh 1917 agrees with the Septuagint, than the Hebrew: 

JPS Tanakh 1917
Yet Thou hast made him but little lower than the angels, And hast crowned him with glory and honour.

Hebrews 2:7 had ''angels'' (ἀγγέλους) which agrees with the Septuagint: ἠλάττωσας αὐτὸν βραχύ τι παρ᾽ ἀγγέλους (Psalm 8:5 LXX).

ἠλάττωσας αὐτὸν βραχύ τι παρ' ἀγγέλους (Hebrews 2:7 NA27).

The Douay-Rheims Bible (from Latin) agrees also with the Septuagint in using ''angelis'' (angels):

 ''minuisti eum paulo minus ab angelis'', showing that the Old Latin (Vetus Latina, 2nd century C.E. followed the LXX reading). Hebrews 2:7 itself from the 1st century A.D. followed the Septuagint reading of ''angels'' when it quoted Psalm 8:5. The signifance of this is that ''gods'' in the original Hebrew refers to ''angels'' according to ancient translations and the New Testament.

Other Hebrew Bible confirms this:

1. Exodus 15:11: “Who is like you, O YHWH, among the gods?,” Psalm 95:3 states, “For YHWH is a great god, and a great King above all gods” (כִּי אֵל גָּדוֹל יְהוָה וּמֶלֶךְ גָּדוֹל עַל־כָּל־אֱלֹהִֽים).
2. Psalm 29:1: “Give to YHWH, O sons of gods, give to YHWH glory and strength” (הָבוּ לַֽיהוָה בְּנֵי אֵלִים הָבוּ לַיהוָה כָּבוֹד וָעֹֽז).
3. Psalm 89.7 “For whom in the skies can be compared to YHWH? Who among the sons of god/gods may be likened to YHWH…?” (כִּי מִי בַשַּׁחַק יַעֲרֹךְ לַיהוָה יִדְמֶה לַיהוָה בִּבְנֵי אֵלִים).

Quotation taken from Michael D. Coogan, Marc Z. Brettler, Carol Newsom, and Pheme Perkins, The New Oxford Annotated Bible New Revised Standard Version (Oxford: Oxford Univ Press, 2009).

''The god of Israel (whether this be YHWH or El) is designated as אֵל עֶלְיֽוֹן, “the Most High god” (e.g., Gen.14:18-19; Ps. 78:35; cf. Ps. 82:6), because there are other lower gods in his pantheon. These gods obey and pay deference to YHWH because he is the supreme god of the pantheon. YHWH is the “god of gods” ( אֵל אֱלֹהִים), i.e., the “greatest god” (Josh. 22:22), just as Artaxerxes was the “greatest king” (מֶלֶךְ מַלְכַיָּא; Ezra. 7:12) or Canticles is the “greatest song” (שִׁיר הַשִּׁירִים; Song of Songs 1:1) (The Early History of God, Mark S. Smith, 34).

Logos Christology in the 2nd Century A.D.

The gospel of John was written circa 90 AD. The Logos Christology became prominent in the early and middle 2nd second century A.D. 

The early church fathers who were Native Greek speakers deemed γενής in μονογενής as "begotten''. Tertullian spoke of Christ as "unigenitus'' because alone genitus of God [Against Praxeas VII]. The Greek fathers like Justin Martyr used μονογενὴς in the context of the begetting of the Son before all creatures (Dialogue to Trypho, 105).

The Logos and Wisdom are the same thing in the Septuagint

who hast made all things with thy word,

ho poiesas ta panta en logo sou Wisdom 9:1 LXX

ὁ ποιήσας τὰ πάντα ἐν λόγῳ σου

Thine Almighty word leaped down from heaven out of thy royal throne, as a fierce man of war into the midst of a land of destruction,

ὁ παντοδύναμός σου λόγος ἀπ’ οὐρανῶν ἐκ θρόνων βασιλείων ἀπότομος πολεμιστὴς εἰς μέσον τῆς ὀλεθρίας ἥλατο γῆς ξίφος ὀξὺ τὴν ἀνυπόκριτον ἐπιταγήν σου φέρων. Wisdom 18:15 LXX

I came out of the mouth of the most High,

ego apo stomatos uphistou exegthon 

ἐγὼ ἀπὸ στόματος ὑψίστου ἐξῆλθον Sirach 24:3 LXX

Jesus Christ is both Logos and Wisdom in the Greek New Testament

''James Dunn has said , "What pre - Christian Judaism said of Wisdom and Philo also of the Logos , Paul and the others say of Jesus.'' (Discovering the Way of Wisdom: Spirituality in the Wisdom Literature, By Edward M. Curtis, John J. Brugaletta, 2004).

In the New Testament, Jesus was called ''sophia'' (feminine word for Wisdom) in 1 Corinthians 1:24 and its counterpart ''logos'' (masculine word for Word) in John 1:1, 1:14

John was using ἐγένετο in its denotation "to come into existence" or "was made" (1:3, 1:10 NASB/NKJV). The Word "came into human existence (sarxi egeneto) and dwelt among us 1:14ab). It refers to the new existence of the Word (who was already God (theos) in 1:1c) as human (sarx). The same sense which is in the majority of English translations (the Word became flesh - NRSV, NASB, ESV). Also in other Ancient Versions, like that of the Old Latin (Vetus Latina) of the 2nd century A.D. and Vulgate (et Verbum caro factum 1:14a). In Syriac: (ܘܡܠܬܐ ܒܤܪܐ ܗܘܐ ܘܐܓܢ) (the Miltha (the Word) ܒܤܪܐ [became] flesh. 1:14a).

"From that time on, Wisdom appeared on earth and lived among us." Baruch 3:37 (GNT with Apocrypha, 1996)

Wisdom is only/uniquely begotten in the Septuagint

Wisdom was κτισο [created] ρπος αιονος [before the ages] [Proverbs 8:22 LXX]. Verse 25 says that the way she was created was by being γενναο [begotten]. Thus, Wisdom was a child/offspring of God, sharing in his divine nature. In the Deuterocanon, Wisdom was also created before all things were made (Sirach 1:4).

The context of Proverbs 8 shows that εκτισεν (to create) is specifically referring to the creation of an offpspring (γενναο) in verse 25. In the Hebrew of verse 30, Wisdom is indeed an offspring for she is described as "nursling", who is daily with God, who begat her before the ages (προς αιονους) in vv. 24-25.

In the Deuterocanon, Wisdom was ''uniquely begotten or only begotten'' (μονογενης) (Wisdom of Solomon 7:27 LXX). 

Jesus Christ is only/uniquely begotten in the Greek New Testament

In the New Testament, Jesus was called ''sophia'' (feminine word for Wisdom) in 1 Corinthians 1:24 and its counterpart ''logos'' (masculine word for Word) in John 1:1, 1:14.

In the second century C.E., Christians who were native Greek speakers also understood the Greek word monogenes as ''only begotten'' or ''uniquely begotten'' (i.e. the only one begotten differently from others). In the Gospel of John, monogenes (1:14, 1:18) occurred in close proximity with other sons who were also described as ''begotten'' (egennethesan) of God (John 1:12-13). In this case, monos in monogenes should be seen as ''unique'' (i.e. alone of its kind, single in category): ''uniquely begotten.'' In  In John 1:18, Jesus is called  both ''God'' and ''uniquely begotten''( in the bosom of the Father''). [ ''only begotten God'' NASB]. ''only begotten God'' meant ''existed as God'' same as in verse 1 (''The Word was God''). 

Jesus was the only one begotten before time began (i.e. eternally begotten). The word ''begotten'' was used to indicate ''sonship'' (see monogenes with huios in John 3:16, 18). And time was not involved in this begetting. Time was created. All things (including time) came into being through the Logos and not one thing came into being without the Logos (John 1:3).

 John 1:1 and John 1:18 forms an inclusio:

The Word was God John 1:1c A
Only begotten God John 1:18b B

 

in the bosom of the Father John 1:18c B 

The Word existed with God John 1:1b A

 

It also forms a chiastic structure (A-B-B-A), which also Alpha, Beta, Beta, Alpha represents the transliteration of "father" in Aramaic, a reference to God the Father. 

The Word who was God was the selfsame only begotten (uniquely begotten) before all things came into being (v. 3).

Asexual generation

The begetting of the Son is also asexual (involves no sexual activity) similar to the virgin birth. This sonship/ begetting was unique because it was asexual (no sexual activity), only the Father was involved in this begetting.

Begotten only carries genetic sense

The Father is unbegotten since no is above him. It is assumed. Everyone agrees with it anyways. The Father has no origin. The Son came from the Father means the Son does not exist apart from the Father, the Son got the Father's essence. We came from our parents and we got their genes.

''begotten'' is not used as an action verb (even though in reality it is a finite verb) when it is used with the phrase ''before time began''. The reason for this is that time doesn't apply to ''before time'' so the sense of ''begotten'' (having a beginning) doesn't apply as well. Only its genetic sense apply. One who is begotten is produced but this production is different from making a paper from a tree. Being begotten entails the passing of nature from parent to offspring. Thus, being begotten before time meant existing as literal offspring of God (sharing in his own nature, like a child shares in his parent's nature) before time. In our world, this refers to the law of biogenesis (like begets like). The early church in the 2nd century A.D. up to the 4th century A.D. also spoke of Jesus having the substance (i.e. nature) of God. 

Logical Possibility

1. Meaning of Eternity in Eternal Generation of the Logos

God created time. But before time began, God was doing something. What verb tense would we use to refer to the actions of God prior to the creation of time? The Septuagint and the Greek New Testament used the phrases "before the ages" and "before time" in the context when God was doing something. "eternally begotten" is just "begetting outside time". Eternity refers to the state of existence apart from time. Yet the Bible uses verbs in the past tense and present tense to refer to the actions of God before time was created. If we would like to be consistent, then, this Biblical usage of time in reference to God's actions before time should also be illogical, an impossibility, and contradiction but it isn't.

Whatever God did (past tense) before time began can be understood as an action without beginning or ending (eternal). All God's actions , whatever the verbs are, had the same sense of ''existed before time'' without reference to a beginning since there is no time involved in the actions. The Son was begotten before time meant the Son existed before time just as God chose, loved, foreknown, etc. before time began. 

The Son was begotten before time meant the Son existed without beginning, just as God created and begotten Wisdom before time meant Wisdom existed without beginning. Past actions before time began merely refers to existence without beginning regardless of the verbs used. In other words, the action words (verbs) with its tenses that indicated a beginning  (i.e. time) does not apply to those actions God himself did before time began. 

''begotten'' is not used as an action verb (even though it is a verb) when it is used with ''before time began'', simply because time doesn't apply so the sense of ''begotten'' (having a beginning) doesn't apply as well. The word ''begotten before time began'' meant ''existed before time began''. Nothing more, nothing less. And anything that existed before time began is ''eternal''.

When we say that Jesus is ''eternally begotten'', what we mean is that the Jesus as ''the Son'' has ''existed before time began'' (i.e. there's no time when Jesus wasn't God's son). God has many begotten sons (John 1:12-13) but Jesus was the ''only son of his kind'' (ho huios, ho monogenes, John 3:16) because only Jesus was begotten before all things (including time) came into being (cf. John 1:3, 1:18). 

Another interpretation of ''eternal''in regard to an action (always happening and never had began). The Son's begetting being eternal is similar to the radiance being eternal because the light from where it comes from is eternal (Hebrews 1:3, Wisdom 7:26-27 LXX).

2. Eternal Begetting is a miracle

Fire is the Son's original essence prior to his incarnation. This is exactly Yahweh's essence in the O.T. This is not illogical /logically impossible because Adam himself came from the ''dust'' of the earth and Eve came from the ''rib'' of Adam. Who among us today came from ribs and soil? No one. That kind of generation was unique to Adam and Eve. So who among the sons of God was unquely begotten except The Son of God, who is begotten before time began?