Jesus is the same God as his Father, not because the Father is Jesus, but because the Father and Jesus are equated to the 1 OT Lord God.
The NT writers equated these 2 distinct persons: "the Father" and "Jesus Christ" to the OT Yahweh ( who is called both κυριος (Lord) and θεος (God) in the Greek of the Jewish prayer "Shema Yisrael"). This is why in the NT, the Father is called "God the Father" and Jesus Christ is called "Lord Jesus Christ".
In the NT, the consistent identification of the Father as the OT God and Jesus Christ as the OT Lord is evidence that they are deemed to be the same OT Yahweh (OT Lord God) by the earliest/original Christians in the NT (John 1:1, 20:17, 20:22, 20:28, Romans 10:9-13, 1 Corinthians 1:2, 8:6, Philippians 2:9-11, Jude 1:4, 1:25, Revelation 1:8, 14:4, 20:6).
Acts 2:36 says Jesus is made κυριος (Lord). It means he is not previously Lord. What was he? He chose to become like a slave (i.e. he is serving others): "he was equal with God but emptied himself, having taken the form of a slave" (Phil 2:6-7), "He came to serve" (Mark 10:45). And prior to this choice, he was the "one Lord, through whom are all things" (1 Cor 8:6, cf. Deut 6:4, Romans 11:36). Being Lord is a function of a deity over all created things:
In 1 Corinthians 15:26-27, God puts all things (i.e. all created things) under Jesus' feet, God subjects all things (i.e. all created things) to Jesus. This shows 2 uncreated persons: God (the Father in context) and Jesus (the Lord in the text, having all things under his feet/subject to his rule/dominion/lordship)
("every knee bends to me i.e. to the Lord God", based on context (Isaiah 45:23 LXX) every knee bends in the name of Jesus and every tongue confesses Jesus is Lord to God the Father's glory" Philippians 2:10-11). Paul applies the OT "YHWH text" to Jesus and the Father in Philippians 2:10-11, equating Jesus and the Father to the 1 Lord God of Isaiah 45.
there is only one God, and he is the one Lord of the Shema (Lord our God [Elohim], Lord[Adonai] is one)
According to Paul, the Father is the one God (Elohim] and Jesus is the one Lord (Adonai) in 1 Corinthians 8:6. That is 1 God, 1 Lord, the one Lord God, not 2 Gods, 2 Lords.
The most often quoted OT passage in the NT is Psalm 110 and Paul never quoted it.
The most often quoted OT passage applied to Jesus in Paul's letters is YHWH (Adonai, not adoni) texts.
Why would i interpret Adonai texts as adoni texts? That suggestion is promoting eisegesis. Biblical texts should always be interpreted in context.
The Two Powers ancient Jewish belief
According to the Gospel of John, the Jews wanted to kill Jesus for blasphemy because Jesus, a human being, claimed to be God (John 10:33).
YHWH prays to YHWH. Jesus (who is YHWH) prays to the Father (who is YHWH) in the NT. In the Bible, YHWH does not only pray to another YHWH, YHWH who is on earth also sends ''sulfur and fire'' from YHWH who is in heaven.
Genesis 19:24
Then Jehovah rained on Sodom and Gomorrah brimstone and fire from Jehovah out of heaven.
The Two Powers theology (Alan Segal, James Mcgrath et al.) in the first century A.D. held that Two Yahwehs (one in heaven and one visiblel in the earth) coexisted. This was not considered a heresy in Judaism until the latter part of the second century A.D.
What makes the Father and Jesus "God" (Elohim) is everything else what Yahweh is, in the Hebrew Bible. It is not about what does not make God God, such as the human essence as well as having a God. The human Jesus, him having a God does not negate his being also God in the same way that the human Moses (and others who also participate in the divine nature) does not negate his being also god.
Moses is a generic god, made so by Yahweh, who is the God of Israel and who is explicitly described as the "God of gods" in Scripture". Thus, Moses' godhood is different from that of what Jesus himself possesses. Jesus is the same God as Yahweh. In John 20:28, Jesus acknowledges that he is both Lord and God. Jesus is "God" , who has his own Father also as his own "God" (cf. Hebrews 1:8-9) manifests the age-old Jewish belief that Yahweh in heaven interacts with his angel (i.e. messenger) who is Yahweh on earth (Genesis 19:24). These 2 YHWHs are the same God, they are the one God manifesting as 2 distinct persons in 2 different localities: in heaven and on earth. This Scripture from both the Old and New Testaments and its ancient witness from historical Jewish sources.
John is Elijah, Jesus is Lord (YHWH)
The God of Jesus, the Father, acknowledges Jesus is "God" in Hebrews 1:8. In Romans 10:9-13, Paul equates Jesus with the OT Lord ( = YHWH). Jesus is the same God as the Father not in the sense that Jesus is his own God / not in the sense that the Father is Jesus. Jesus and the Father both share in the same exact name "the name above all names" (i.e. YHWH) and receive the same exact worship , together as a unit, in Philippians 2:9-11, Revelation 14:4, 20:6. Logically, 2 distinct persons with the same name of deity offerred the same worship as deity shows that there is a single deity being honoured even if 2 distinct persons feature. When i say that Jesus is the same God as the Father, i am speaking of precisely how Paul equates Jesus with YHWH and also distinguished him as a numerically distinct person from YHWH so that he is not YHWH identified as the Father. The biblical analogy for this is the angel who is YHWH (having the name YHWH in him in the OT) in the earth visible to men without being YHWH in the heavens and John being Elijah. Scripture says John is Elijah even when John is some sense not Elijah:
Matt. 11:14 “And if you are willing to accept it, John himself is Elijah who was to come.”
Joel 2:32
32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved
Romans 10
9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.
13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”
John is Elijah, says Scripture, yet in practise no one really treated him as Elijah. Elijah himself appeared to Jesus in Jesus' transfiguration. In this case, John is Elijah but in another sense.
In the case of Jesus Christ, he is Lord ( = YHWH) (Romans 10:9-13) and he did receive the same exact treatment the OT YHWH receives as such religious worship. Although analogous to John-is-Elijah concept in Scripture, Jesus is more conflated to YHWH than John is to Elijah in Scripture which means that in Scripture, Jesus-is-YHWH is more analogous to YHWH-is-God than it is to John-is-Elijah since Jesus receives religious worship as YHWH.
