Joel 3:5 LXX in Paul's Letters

In the earliest New Testament texts (Paul's letters), Jesus is identified as the Old Testament (OT) ''Lord''. Paul applies Joel 3:5 LXX (EN: Joel 2:32) to Jesus in Romans 10:13 and 1 Corinthians 1:2. 

Joel 2:32 New Revised Standard Version  

32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the Lord has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the Lord calls.

Romans 10:9-13 New Revised Standard Version  

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For one believes with the heart and so is justified, and one confesses with the mouth and so is saved. 11 The scripture says, “No one who believes in him will be put to shame.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

1 Corinthians 1:2 New Revised Standard Version 2 To the church of God that is in Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, together with all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both their Lord and ours:

  

Analysis of Joel 2:32

Joel 2:32 New Revised Standard Version  

32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the Lord has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the Lord calls.

 Israelites call upon the name of their god (YHWH). Others call upon the name of their god (e.g. Baal). In the Greek text, they call on the name of kurios (the LORD/Lord)

 1 Kings 18:24-26 (NRSV) Then you call on the name of your god and I will call on the name of the Lord; the god who answers by fire is indeed God.” All the people answered, “Well spoken!” Then Elijah said to the prophets of Baal, “Choose for yourselves one bull and prepare it first, for you are many; then call on the name of your god, but put no fire to it.” So they took the bull that was given them, prepared it, and called on the name of Baal from morning until noon, crying, “O Baal, answer us!” But there was no voice, and no answer. They limped about the altar that they had made. 

Note

The Tetragrammaton (the four letter name) יהוה (YHWH) does not exist in extant Greek New Testament manuscripts.  The Jews even prior to the advent of Jesus Christ already used substitutes for the divine name (אדני [adonai] in Hebrew, κυριος in Greek) in Hebrew Bible and Jewish writings. אדני is used in the Isaiah scrolls (120 B.C.E.) found in Qumran. The Elephantine Papyri (5th century B.C.E.) had the Aramaic יהו and the Greek copies of the Hebrew Bible (e.g. Leviticus) such as those found in Qumran (c. 2nd–1st century B.C.E) rendered the divine name phonetically ΙΑΩ ( = יה) as well as in Paleo-Hebrew 𐤉𐤄𐤅𐤄.

Analysis of Romans 10:9-11 

Isaiah 28:16 Brenton Septuagint Translation

Therefore thus saith the Lord, even the Lord, Behold, I lay for the foundations of Sion a costly stone, a choice, a corner-stone, a precious stone, for its foundations; and he that believes on him shall by no means be ashamed.

In Romans 10:11, Paul cites Isaiah 28:16. The ''him'' in Isaiah 28:16 does not refer to the Father but to the Lord Jesus, who is the ''corner-stone''. 

Isaiah 28:16 refers to the Father who lays in Zion (the church) a precious cornerstone for a foundation (Jesus himself) based on New Testament texts: Matthew 21:42; Mark 12:10; Luke 20:17; Acts 4:11; Romans 9:33; Ephesians 2:20; and 1 Peter 2:6-8. 

In Romans 10:11, Paul identifies Jesus as the corner-stone of Isaiah 28:16 (LXX). In Romans 10:13, Paul identifies Jesus as the Lord of Joel 2:32 (LXX). 

Romans 10:9 New Revised Standard Version  

because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

Here, the referents God and Jesus are identified, and they are two separate identities. Jesus isn't the God who raised him from the dead. This God was identified by Paul as the God of Jesus and Father of Jesus in the same letter (Romans):

Romans 15:6 New Revised Standard Version

6 so that together you may with one voice glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.

However, Jesus' title ''Lord'' is indicative of deity. Paul identifies Jesus as the ''Lord'' mentioned in Joel 2:32 in Romans 10:13.

Joel 2:32 New Revised Standard Version  

32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the Lord has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the Lord calls.

Romans 10:9-13 New Revised Standard Version  

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. 10 For one believes with the heart and so is justified, and one confesses with the mouth and so is saved. 11 The scripture says, “No one who believes in him will be put to shame.” 12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

The Greek conjunction ''gar'' (''for'') occurring in the statements in vv. 10, 12, and 13 all refer back to the statement in v. 9. 

HELPS Word-studies

1063 gár (a conjunction) – for. While "for" is usually the best translation of 1063 (gár), its sense is shaped by the preceding statement – the "A" statement which precedes the 1063 (gár) statement in the "A-B" unit.

verse 9 with 10-11

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

10 For one believes with the heart and so is justified, and one confesses with the mouth and so is saved. 11 The scripture says, “No one who believes in him will be put to shame.”

verse 9 with 12

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; the same Lord is Lord of all and is generous to all who call on him.

Note.

 Jesus is called ''Lord of all'' in Acts 10:36

verse 9 with 13

9 because if you confess with your lips that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.

13 For, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved.”

Note.

 Paul also applied Joel 2:32 to Jesus in 1 Corinthians 1:2. 

Analysis of 1 Corinthians 1:2

Joel 2:32 New Revised Standard Version  

32 Then everyone who calls on the name of the Lord shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there shall be those who escape, as the Lord has said, and among the survivors shall be those whom the Lord calls.

1 Corinthians 1:2 New Revised Standard Version 2 To the church of God that is in Corinth, to those who are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, together with all those who in every place call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, both their Lord and ours:

 The Tetragrammaton (the four letter name) ''YHWH'' (Hebrew:  יהוה) is the personal name of the god of Israel. This is the divine name which is being called upon by the Israelites in the Hebrew Bible. It's absent in virtually every extant NT MSS we have in possession today. 

Hebrew: 

            כל שרא יכרא בשם יהוה: 

(all who call upon the name of YHWH)

LXX: 

πας ος αν επικαλεσηται το ονομα κυριου

(all who call upon the name of [the] LORD).  

NT: 

παριν τοις επικαλουμενοις του κυριου ημων ιησου χριστου

(all who call upon the name of the Lord of us, Jesus Christ). 

Paul was well aware that ''lord'' in both Joel 2:32 and 1 Corinthians 1:2 refers to ''YHWH'' in the phrase ''calling on the name of the lord''.

In 1 Corinthians 1:2, kurios has the article, indicating that it's being used as a title for Jesus (''lord Jesus'') and since kurios in Joel 3:5 LXX is the written substitute for YHWH, the rendering ''LORD Jesus/Lord Jesus'' would accurately translate the Greek into English. 

kyrios iesous in Hebrew would be: Yahweh Yahoshua (which would be ''Jehovah [who is] Jesus'' in English). 

Note

In English, ''LORD'' and ''Lord'' mean the same thing. They refer to God. This is following an age-old tradition of the Jews who used Adonai (literally, ''My Lords'', when ascribed to YHWH, it becomes ''My Lord'' or simply ''Lord'') as oral/verbal substitute for the Tetragrammaton. In Greek, kurios is the oral/verbal substitute. It's also the written substitute for the divine name in the Greek OT (LXX). In the LXX copies (dating circa 3rd cen. A.D.), kurios is anarthrous (without the definite article). This indicates that kurios is being used as a name, not as a proper noun. 

 The distinction between ''LORD'', ''Lord'' and 'lord'' in English is that ''LORD'' is often used as written substitute for the Tetragrammaton YHWH in the Old Testament English translations. On the other hand, ''Lord'' is often the written substitute for the divine name in English translations of the New Testament and ''lord'' simply refers to any superior, or one who has authority over another/others (master/ruler/husband (Abraham)/angel etc.). As far as i know, all English NT bibles have Jesus as ''Lord'', affirming his being true God.

1. Paul did not write "call on the name of יהוה (YHWH) in 1 Corinthians 1:2 or in any other epistles of his. In our "extant" G.N.T. copies, the divine name יהוה (YHWH) is absent.
2. The word κυριος  (''lord'') was used to Abraham, a land-lord, an angel and many other persons in the Bible. But specifically, the Greek New Testament used the word κυριος (''lord'') as the substitute for the Tetragrammaton יהוה (YHWH) and in English, ''lord'' becomes ''LORD''/''Lord'' to indicate that it's being used as the written substitute for the divine name. 
3. The Hebrew Bible warned about calling upon the name of other gods. Jesus was not another god because the name he possesses was the name of the god of Israel, YHWH: Exodus 23:13 (NRSV): Be attentive to all that I have said to you. Do not invoke the names of other gods; do not let them be heard on your lips.
4. Philippians 2:9-11 teaches the same thing. The latter was worshiped the way YHWH is worshiped. κυριος is anarthrous in Philippians 2:11. In Philippians 2:9-11, κυριος clearly refers to the Tetragrammaton (יהוה) because (1) it is anarthrous and (2) it is the name above all names (3) Paul alluded to Isaiah 45:23 in Romans 14:11. And then, Paul alluded  to Romans 14:11 in Philippians 2:10-11. This showed that Paul was applying Isaiah 45:23 to Jesus in Philippians 2:10-11 through Romans 14:11.  The angel in the Old Testament did have the name of YHWH for the name of YHWH is ''in him''. The difference between this angel and Jesus is that the former was not worshiped the way YHWH is worshiped. 
5. κυριος ιησους ("Lord Jesus").  "Jesus" is the personal name of Jesus and the honorific title κυριος (''lord'') represents divine name יהוה (YHWH) in the phrase "call upon the name of the LORD" (e.g. Genesis 4:26, 1 Kings 18:24, Psalm 116:4, Joel 2:32, Zephania 3:9 etc.) and when it represents the divine name, it is capitalised (either as Lord or LORD). 
6.  How was it (i.e. the phrase ''calling upon the name of the Lord'' when applied to Jesus) used in the N.T.? It is used in baptisms, exorcisms, healings, for salvation and for corporate religious worship, as evident in the book of Acts.
7. Peter said he had nothing but in the name of Jesus, he healed the sick (Peter invoked the name of Jesus, calling upon Jesus himself to heal the sick). So the disciples did not do them through their own abilities, as they merely invoking the name of Jesus (i,e. praying to Jesus), as the gospel said, ''ask Jesus and Jesus will do it' (John 14:13-14)'. "Calling upon the name of the Lord ( = YHWH) is to pray to the Lord ( =YHWH) in the Old Testament. In the New Testament, Jesus is the Lord ( =YHWH) who is being called upon.
8. Everyone call on the name of the Lord Jesus/ Jesus Christ'' means ''everyone praying to the Lord Jesus/Jesus Christ, to ask help from Jesus. ''ask Jesus and Jesus will do it'' (John 14:13-14).  "name" is Hebraism pertaining to the person himself.

LXX: All call on the name of [the] Lord = all pray to the Lord

NT: All call on the name of the Lord Jesus = all pray to the Lord Jesus 

 

      11. Why would God give his own name to another person? In the Old Testament, God's name was placed in the Angel of the Lord. It's all to do with authority. However, did the angel of the Lord receive corporate worship? Was he also made the Lord whose name everyone calls upon? ( cf. Acts 2:21, 2:36).

Questions: 

1. What is the difference between the two? 

Everyone will call upon the Name of the Lord 

Everyone will call upon the Name of the Lord Jesus

2. Romans 14:11 alluded to Isaiah 45:23. Philippians 2:10-11 is also alluding that OT YHWH text. The kurios in the Greek of Isaiah 45 refers to YHWH, then, why is it that suddenly kurios in Philippians 2:9-11 isn't the name above all names (YHWH)?

3. What disqualifies 1 Cor 1:2 and Philippians 2:9-10 for being YHWH texts? They are both YHWH texts through its allusions of the O.T. YHWH texts which speaks of YHWH (represented by κυριος). Other N.T. texts alluded O.T. (did not quote them, yet it's understood that they refer to YHWH, but why when its comes to Jesus, the YHWH texts lose its meaning? For instance, "all calling upon the name of the Lord" in the O.T. refers to prayers to YHWH, then, the N.T. only added the name "Jesus" to it ("all calling upon the name of the Lord Jesus") ,then, suddenly, the sentence no longer refers to the Lord ( = YHWH) ?

Notes:

1. Even if the tetragrammaton is in the autographa, it still would show Jesus is YHWH. The study ''Rendering the Divine Name in Romans 10:13'' (A. Tim Span, et al., 2020) shows exactly that this is the case.

The point is that because a lot of OT YHWH texts were clearly applied to Jesus and obviously if the Tetragrammaton was in it, it would refer to the subject (ie. Jesus). The divine name in the NT would only strengthen the OT YHWH texts applied to Jesus, that Jesus is being referred to as יהוה (YHWH).  

A study of the English word ''god'', the Greek ''theos'', and the Hebrew ''El'' (pl. ''Elohim'')

The English word ''god''

The English word “god” came from German “gott” which came from Proto-Germanic “guda” which came from Proto-Indo-European “ghutos” (“ghew” - pour/libate + “tos”). Thus, etymologically speaking “god” refers to a liquid offering being poured probably onto a dead body (as in a religious ritual expressing belief in the after life /ancestor worship ). Later, when the concept of personal gods occurred, instead of calling the offerings “god”, they called the divine person who receives the offerings “god”.

Both the Greek word theos and English word god does not originally refer to a personal deity but to either a holy place or the offering itself. These things (sacred place and offerings) are both associated with the concept of personal deities. However, according to history, the most primitive religious belief is Animism ( the belief that all physical things are alive because they have spirit in them) and the belief that the soul or spirit (life force) does not die so that ancestral worship (honouring dead humans ) was the first ever religious worship in history. This explains why burial rituals were the first religious activities. The concept of personal deities came much later.

The lack of personal deities in the most ancient human societies explains why “god” in its etymology does not have the meaning of “a personal god”. “god” in its original and most ancient sense is about a holy place (burial site) or the offering (burial ritual) made to honour dead human bodies due to the belief that they are not really dead but are continually alive in their souls. This belief in immortal souls is because of the universal belief in “Animism” that every physical thing (trees, stones, human bodies, water, mountain etc.) are all alive because they all have spirits.

Summary

The English word “god” (proto-Indo-European “ghutos”) originally refers to the (liquid) offerings being poured onto the dead in burial practises. When the concept of personal deities arose, they re-use and  applied the word to divine persons. “god” in the language of Babylonians originally refers to a “priest”. “god” in the language of the Akkadians, Arabic , Aramaic and Latin were all originally referring to the “sky” or “heaven”. When people started to worship celestial objects (sun, moon and stars - all are found “in the sky” or “heaven”) and began treating them as persons, they simply called them “gods” which means that the personal deities are called “gods” simply because they are recognised as persons whose dwelling place is in the sky (heaven).

The Greek word 'theos' 

The Greek word theos came from Proto-Hellenic t’ehos which came from Proto-Indo-European word dehs (sacred place) from deh (to put) [1]. Thus, theos refers to a holy place (probably an altar or a temple) where sacrifices are put or offered. Based on its etymology, theos does not specifically refer to a deity [2] at all but is highly associated with a priest (the one who puts sacrifices or does an offering in a holy place). It could be also associated to a more primitive societies like that of the hunter gatherers [3] (who were animists) so that the sacred place refers to the burial place/site where they put their dead and do their rituals. 

The Greek word “theos” (Proto-Indo-European “dhes”) originally refers to a sacred place (either a temple where priests put their sacrifices or a burial place where the dead humans are put in order to honour them).

Notes

[1] https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/%CE%B8%CE%B5%CF%8C%CF%82

[2] The Latin fēriae (''festival days'')also came from the same Proto-Indo-European word dehs (sacred place) from deh (to put). Consistent with the Greek, the Latin also does not refers to a personal deity, but something related to it like fānum (“temple”). 

[3] https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4958132/

The Hebrew word  ''El'' (pl. ''Elohim'') 

''El'' came from two Hebrew letters Aleph (appearing as the head of an ox in pictographs, indicating strength of an ox) and Lamed (which appears as the staff of a shepherd in pictographs, indicating authority of a shepherd). Thus, El refers to one who is both strong and has authority to rule others. Based on its etymology, El accurately means a “strong leader”.

 The plural of El is Elohiym (“strong leaders” refers to the “judges” in Israel or the “angels” who function as “princes” in the divine council). The Elohiym as ‘intensive plural’ used for the singular subject means “the strongest one”, “one with all powers/ strength (the almighty)”. 

Both Yahweh and the Israelite king were called Elohiym in the intensified plural to indicate they have all power in the nation of Israel. Moses too was called Elohiym in the intensified plural to indicate he had all power over Pharaoh (who had all power over all Egypt). This shows that the Hebrew El corresponds to Kyrios in Greek since they both have the denotation of being superior or supreme as leaders (having all power/authority above all others). This is also why in English “god” is defined as “the supreme being”. Therefore, when seen in light of their inherent meaning in Hebrew and Greek, the English lord and god are actually synonymous.

Summary

The Hebrew word “El” originally refers to a “strong leader”. Thus, it is applied to Yahweh, the judges in Israel, the prophet Moses, the Israelite kings, the angels who function as princes over all nations. Its intensive plural “Elohiym” means “almighty leader” which is usually the sense being applied to Yahweh in the Bible. The Hebrew word El (supreme being) is synonymous with the Greek word kyrios (superior). Both El and kyrios equally carry a functional sense.

Notes

El in Proto-Semitic is Il which came from the Old Babylonian word “Ilum” ( priest). Its cognate in Akkadian is “Ilu”. Arabic “Ilah” and Aramaic “Alah”.

''Before Time Began'': The Concept of "Eternity" in the Septuagint and the Greek New Testament

God created time. But before time began, God was doing something. What verb tense would we use to refer to the actions of God prior to the creation of time? The Bible uses verbs in the past tense and present tense to refer to the actions of God before time was created. The Septuagint and the Greek New Testament used the phrases that indicated God doing something else before time began.

Before time/before the ages (pro tou aionos/aionon)

The Greek word aionios (in genitive plural aionion) refers to time that lasts, something that endures for a long time (lasting). It refers to a long duration of a time period (age). The phrase ''pro tou aionos'' refers to ''before the start of time that lasts for an age'' (i.e. age-during) and the phrase ''pro tou aionon'' refers to ''before the start of the ages (many periods of time)''. To simply put, the phrases refer to ''before time began'' and ''before the ages began''.

In Proverbs 8, God ''made'' (ἔκτισέν) Wisdom (v. 22) and ''begets'' (present tense, γεννᾷ)Wisdom (v. 25) ''before time began'' (πρὸ τοῦ αἰῶνος) (v. 23).

πρὸ τοῦ αἰῶνος Proverbs 8:23 LXX ''He established me before time was in the beginning, before he made the earth''. (Brenton's Septuagint Translation)

God made a promise before the ages began:  

πρὸ τῶν αἰώνων Psalm 55:19 LXX

''in the hope of eternal life that God, who never lies, promised before the ages began''. (NETS, Albert Pietersma).

God himself is King even before the ages began.

πρὸ αἰῶνος Psalm 74:12 LXX ''But God is our king before ages: he hath wrought salvation in the midst of the earth''. (Douay-Rheims Bible)

The crucifixion was something God already had in his mind before time began, when all things were not yet created. This is hidden (unknown) from us. It's a secret that only God has knowledge of but that which God has now revealed to his people by his Spirit (v. 10). Compare 1 Corinthians 2:7 with Romans 16:25 (...the revelation was kept secret during the times of the ages: χρόνοις αἰωνίοις σεσιγημένου)

πρὸ τῶν αἰώνων 1 Corinthians 2:7 ''But we speak God’s wisdom, secret and hidden, which God decreed before the ages for our glory''. (NRSV)

Before [the] times of the ages (pro chronon aionion)

God ''promised'' eternal life to people before time began.

πρὸ χρόνων αἰωνίων Titus 1:2 ''Upon hope of life age-during, which God, who doth not lie, did promise before times of ages''(Young's Literal Translation)

God ''gave'' people grace before time began. πρὸ χρόνων αἰωνίων 2 Timothy 1:9 ''who did save us, and did call with an holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace, that was given to us in Christ Jesus, before the times of the ages'' (Young's Literal Translation)

Before the foundation of the world (pro kataboles kosmou)

πρό καταβολῆς κόσμου/pro kataboles kosmou (before the foundation of the world) in John 17:21 is synonymous with πρό τοῦ τόν κόσμον εἶναι /pro tou ton kosmou einai (before the world existed) in John 17:5. In the former, God ''loved'' Jesus before the creation of all things whilst in the latter, God and Jesus ''shared glory together'' before the creation of all things.

πρό καταβολῆς κόσμου John 17:24

''Father, I desire that those also, whom you have given me, may be with me where I am, to see my glory, which you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world.'' (NRSV)

God ''chose'' his people before he created all things. Even when the people themselves did not yet exist, God had already known them and chosen them (see Jeremiah 1:5 wherein God already knew and chose Jeremiah to be a prophet even before he was formed in the womb).

πρό καταβολῆς κόσμου Ephesians 1:4

''just as he chose us in Christ before the foundation of the world to be holy and blameless before him in love''. (NRSV)

God already ''knew'' Christ before all things were created.

πρό καταβολῆς κόσμου 1 Peter 1:20

''He was destined before the foundation of the world, but was revealed at the end of the ages for your sake.'' (NRSV)

From/Since the foundation of the world (apo kataboles kosmou)

ἀπό καταβολῆς κόσμου occurred 6x in the New Testament: Matthew 13:35 R G; ; Luke 11:50; Hebrews 4:3; Hebrews 9:26; Revelation 13:8; Revelation 17:8)

ἀπό καταβολῆς κόσμου means either ''from the foundation of the world'' or ''since the foundation of the world''. ἀπό καταβολῆς κόσμου (from/since the foundation of the world) is synonymous with ἀπό κτίσεως κόσμου/ apo ktiseos kosmou which means either ''from the creation of the world'' (KJV) or ''since the creation of the world'' (NRSV) in Romans 1:20. Further evidence for this comes from Hebrews 4:3:

The work (i.e. all creation) is finished since the foundation of the world (τῶν ἔργων ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου γενηθέντων) Hebrews 4:3

Everything was finished (created) in the past (Hebrews 4:3) and people existed from that time onwards until today. Hebrews 9:26 is saying that Christ was not suffering so long as there are men in the world. Christ only suffered ''once''.

''Nor was it to offer himself again and again, as the high priest enters the Holy Place year after year with blood that is not his ownfor then he would have had to suffer again and again since the foundation of the world. But as it is, he has appeared once for all at the end of the age to remove sin by the sacrifice of himself.'' Hebrews 9:25-26 (NRSV)

The Lamb (i.e. Jesus Christ) slain ''from/since the foundation of the world'' = ἀπὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου/apo kataboles kosmou (Revelation 13:8). Christ slain since the foundation of the world means Christ died when everything was already created (compare Revelation 13:8 with Hebrews 4:3). From that time ( after all creation has been made), the lamb was already sacrificed. The animal sacrifice (especifcally the ''Paschal Lamb'' during the Passover Sacrifice) in the O.T. pre-figures and is an anti-type of the one-time sacrifice of Jesus in the N.T. (compare Revelation 13:8 with Hebrews 9:25-26). It is in this sense that Jesus Christ was said to have been sacrificed ever since the Genesis creation was finished in Revelation 13:8.

The Meaning of ''Equality with God'' in John 5:18

The context tells us what ''equality with God'' means. In John 5:18, the Jews wanted to stone Jesus because they believed Jesus broke the sabbath just because he healed the sick man. Verse 16 said ''the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things (i.e. healing the sick) on the Sabbath''. But this wasn't the only reason why the Jews wanted to stone Jesus. The other reason actually made the Jews to seek ''all the more to kill him'' and that's ''calling God his own father'' meaning ''making himself equal with God''.

When Jesus calls God his ''own Father'', Jesus is claiming to be God's ''own son''. The corollary of God being Jesus’ ''own father'' is that Jesus is God’s ‘own son’’. One of the earliest N.T. text indeed spoke of Jesus as God’s ‘’own son’’ (Grk. idiou huiou Romans 8:32 ). Jesus understood himself to be the ''only son of his kind'' (Grk. monogenes huios) (John 3:16, 18).

In just one verse earlier (v. 17), Jesus did call God ''my father'' (Grk. ho pater mou) and said that his father was ''working until now'' (Grk. heos arti egazetai) and he (Jesus) himself was also working: ''and I am working '' (Grk. kargo ergazomai). Jesus was claiming to be equal with God in doing good works (in context, the works were specifically referring to the healing of the sick man on sabbath). 

In Luke 6:34, the Greek word isos refer to ''the same thing'' (i.e. referring to the same ''amount'' in context). in John 5:18, the Greek word isos refer to ''the same thing'' (i.e. the same works) which the Father and the Son do. 

Jesus was not doing it alone. Jesus was ''[doing] the same thing [i.e. breaking the Sabbath, by healing the sick man] with God''. The Jews couldn't accept the words of Jesus because according to Jesus, he was not alone doing the works but that God himself as working (i.e. by healing the sick man, which was for the Jews, it meant breaking the sabbath) (v.17) and that he (Jesus) cannot do the works (i.e. healing the sick man/ break the sabbath) unless he sees the Father himself does it (v.19). The Jews saw it as Jesus speaking evil of God (i.e. blasphemy) that is why they sought all the more to kill Jesus.

Based on verse 19, Jesus claimed that he was able to do ‘’nothing’’ (Greek: ouden) about the Sabbath. He wasn’t changing the Sabbath, adding his own ideas to it. Jesus was merely obeying the sabbath ‘’in the same way’’ (Greek: homoia) or in the original way it was given by God.

''So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father does, that the Son does likewise.'' (John 5:19 ESV)

Jesus believed that the Father himself would have broken the sabbath [of the current Jewish understanding]. Jesus was explaining that what he had done (i.e. healing the sick on a sabbath day) was something God himself would do if God were in such a scenario. This is why Jesus claimed that he could not have broken it (i.e. i myself can do nothing). Breaking the sabbath wasn’t something Jesus could have done without a basis. Jesus explained that he could not have done it if he didn’t see God himself doing it. God is doing good on sabbath days. This is what God showed Jesus and this is what Jesus will do. And this is what Jesus had done on the sabbath day.

Jesus did break the sabbath, the sabbath which the Jews themselves knew, not the sabbath which God himself knew. God knows exactly what the sabbath truly means. The sabbath wasn’t what the Jews think that it really was. Jesus was doing good on a sabbath day. That’s not breaking the sabbath but fulfilling it. For Jesus, the sabbath is not only a rest day but also a day to do good deeds.

John 5:1-19 (ESV):

5 After this there was a feast of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. 2 Now there is in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate a pool, in Aramaic[a] called Bethesda,[b] which has five roofed colonnades. 3 In these lay a multitude of invalids—blind, lame, and paralyzed.[c] 5 One man was there who had been an invalid for thirty-eight years. 6 When Jesus saw him lying there and knew that he had already been there a long time, he said to him, “Do you want to be healed?” 7 The sick man answered him, “Sir, I have no one to put me into the pool when the water is stirred up, and while I am going another steps down before me.” 8 Jesus said to him, “Get up, take up your bed, and walk.” 9 And at once the man was healed, and he took up his bed and walked.Now that day was the Sabbath. 10 So the Jews[d] said to the man who had been healed, “It is the Sabbath, and it is not lawful for you to take up your bed.” 11 But he answered them, “The man who healed me, that man said to me, ‘Take up your bed, and walk.’” 12 They asked him, “Who is the man who said to you, ‘Take up your bed and walk’?” 13 Now the man who had been healed did not know who it was, for Jesus had withdrawn, as there was a crowd in the place. 14 Afterward Jesus found him in the temple and said to him, “See, you are well! Sin no more, that nothing worse may happen to you.” 15 The man went away and told the Jews that it was Jesus who had healed him. 16 And this was why the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath. 17 But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working.” 18 This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God. 19 So Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, the Son can do nothing of his own accord, but only what he sees the Father doing. For whatever the Father[e] does, that the Son does likewise. 20 For the Father loves the Son and shows him all that he himself is doing. And greater works than these will he show him, so that you may marvel.

Conclusion 

According to the context (John 5:1-17, 5:19), Jesus was ''equal with God [in doing good works on Sabbath] in John 5:18.

Understanding ἁρπαγμὸν actively in Philippians 2:6

Understanding  ἁρπαγμὸν actively in Philippians 2:6

The Greek word ''harpagmon'' is a noun (derived from the verb ''harpazo [1]). BDAG defines ἁρπαγμός as "a violent seizure of property, robbery" [2]. 

Older English bible translations like the Young's Literal Translation (YLT), King James version (KJV) and the Tyndale Bible of 1526 translated ἁρπαγμὸν as ''robbery'' in Philippians 2:6 [3]. 

The purpose of writing this article was to scrutinise this definition of ''robbery'' in the context of Philippians 2:6.

Robbery = the act of emptying another of his possessions

There's also an emptying in the act of robbery. When a robber robs someone, he is literally emptying that someone (his victim) of his possessions. This connects robbery to v. 7. There's also a selfish component in robbery because the robber is using both his victims and his victim's possessions for his own interest/benefit. This connects robbery to vv. 3-4. This shows that the meaning ''robbery'' of ἁρπαγμὸν is contextually appropriate.

Paul used the conjunction ἀλλὰ (''but'') [4] for to contrast what Christ thought [5] about being equal with God (''not a robbery'') [6] and to what Christ did (''emptied himself'').

not a robbery ( = not emptying another)

but emptying one's self

The robber is someone who:

(a) empties another (his victim) of his possessions, [7]

(b) for his own benefit [8]

Jesus is someone who:

(a) empties himself of his possessions, giving them to others [9]

(b) for the benefit of others

Notes

[1] The primary sense of the Greek verb ''harpazo'' is the active sense (''to take away by force''). The main idea behind this word is the ''taking away of something or someone violently (with force and suddenly)''. The Greek New Testament always used the active sense of ''harpazo''.

According to the ''New American Standard New Testament Greek Lexicon'', the verb ''harpazo'' was used in the New Testament 14 times (carry off 1, caught 4, snatch 2, snatched...away 1, snatches 1, snatches away 1, snatching 1, take...away...by force 1, take...by force).

Here are some examples of the verb ''harpazo'' from the Greek New Testament.

harpasai = ''take away his belongings'' (Matthew 12:29 GNT)

harpasei = ''steals away'' (Matthew 13:19 NABRE)

harpazein = ''seize'' (GNT), ''take him by force'' (NASB) John 6:15

harpasei = ''will snatch'' (John 10:28 NASB)

harpazein = ''to snatch'' (John 10:29 NASB)

herpasen = ''snatched'' (Acts 8:39 NASB)

harpagesometha = ''caught up'' (1 Thessalonians 4:17 NASB)

harpazontes = ''snatching'' (Jude 1:23 NASB)

''harpazo'' refers to someone taken forcibly out from a place to a new one, violently removing that person from the original place to a new one. This is the frequent Greek New Testament usage of ''harpazo''.

The Greek verb ''harpazo'' in the Greek New Testament always refers to the active sense of ''taking away by force, stealing, snatching, and catching up''.

[2] BDAG, 133.

[3] who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal to God (YLT)

Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God (KJV)

Which beynge in the shape of god and thought it not robbery to be equall with god (Tyndale Bible of 1526)

[4] ''The adverb 'but' is used after a negative for introducing what is true instead''[ ].

Compare the following examples:

''His death was not a tragedy, but a release from pain and suffering.''

''He did not think it a robbery to be equal with God but emptied himself.''

[5]  The subject ὃς (who) , its antecedent being Ἰησοῦ (Jesus), did the action of ἡγέομαι (to lead/ to think/consider). This is the only verb in the verse and it was in the aorist (ἡγήσατο) which means that its tense (time) could refer to the past, present or future: [who] thinks, [who] thought, [who] will think. The context determines if what specific tense was used. If there is no main verb in the text, the aorist verb refers to all time (i.e. the action is true, in past, present and future).

[6] The Greek text of Philippians 2:6 translated into English, following exactly the Greek word-order:

Philippians 2:6 (NA27)

ὃς                ἐν μορφῇ θεοῦ                         ὑπάρχων

who,        in the form of God                existing

οὐχ            ἁρπαγμὸν

not            a robbery

ἡγήσατο               τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ,

considered         to be equal with God

1.) ''not a robbery'' (οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν). 

This is what Jesus thinks about his being equal with God (τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ) in Phil. 2:6.

2.) The verse did not say ''not equal with God'' (οὐχ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ). 

The object τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ deemed ἁρπαγμὸν belongs to the subject in question. The infinitive εἶναι (to be, to exist) in the phrase τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ shows that the subject himself exist as ἴσα θεῷ (equal with God). The subject is doing ἡγήσατο while being/ when he is existing as ἴσα θεῷ (equal with God).

[7] A robber literally empties another person (the victim) of his valuable possessions. The opposite of emptying another person of his things (robbery) is the emptying of one's self of one's own things, giving them to the needy (charity).

Thieves must give up stealing; rather let them labor and work honestly with their own hands, so as to have something to share with the needy. Eph 4:28 (NRSV)

[8] The robber will use the stolen things (valuable possessions of his victims) for his own benefit. This selfish aspect of robbery connects ''harpagmon'' with vv. 3-4, increasing the evidence that ''robbery'' is the mostly likely the meaning that inhabits ''harpagmon'' in Philippians 2:6.

Typically, a robber will cause physical damages, physical death, poverty, psychological trauma etc. to his victims.

The thief comes only to steal and kill and destroy. I came that they may have life, and have it abundantly. (John 10:10 NRSV).

The robber uses the victims (people) and the victim's possessions (valuable things) for his own interest/benefit.

All of these selfish traits mentioned in Philippians 2:3abc -4d are present in a robber:

(a) kenodoxian - self-conceited

(b) erithea - self-interest, one's personal interest or advantage, especially when pursued without regard for others. Acting for one's own benefit, regardless of the harm it causes.

(c) tapeinophrosyne - thinking of one's self as being better than others

(d) me ta heauton ekastoi skopountes- looking of one's own interest only.

[9] ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν - to empty one's self (of riches).

It's possible that the self-emptying in Phil. 2:7 had a socio-economic meaning. The paradigm for this understanding is Luke 1:53 wherein the Lord sent the rich away with nothing [lit. ''empty'', Grk. ''kenous'']. In Luke 18:22, the Lord asked the rich ruler to empty himself of his possessions (''sell all that you own'', NRSV) and part of this emptying of one's own riches was giving them to the poor. Jesus, as the Lord, owned all things (1 Corinthians 10:26). Jesus was rich and he became poor (i.e. emptied himself of his riches, giving them to others) in 2 Cor 8:9.

''For you know the generous act of our Lord Jesus Christ, that though he was rich, yet for your sakes he became poor, so that by his poverty you might become rich.'' (2 Corinthians 8:9 NRSV)

Paul also spoke of supporting the weak, quoting the Lord Jesus' word ''it is more blessed to give than to receive''. Psalm 35:10 spoke of the Lord delivering the weak from those who ''despoil'' (NRSV) or ''rob'' (NASB) them. The Lord saves the weak from robbery and following the Lord's words, Paul spoke of supporting the weak through giving. 

''In all this I have given you an example that by such work we must support the weak, remembering the words of the Lord Jesus, for he himself said, ‘It is more blessed to give than to receive.'' (Acts 20:35 NRSV)


''All my bones will say, “Lord, who is like You,

Who rescues the afflicted from one who is too strong for him,

And the afflicted and the poor from one who robs him?” (Psalm 35:10 NASB)