The Sonship of Jesus in the Gospel of John

Jesus talked more about his equality with God in other areas in the subsequent verses (5:19-30). 

Not only did Jesus doing the same thing with God (i.e. healing the sick on sabbath) in 5:1-7, 5:19 but he also will be doing the same thing (i.e. greater works, raising the dead and judging all men ) with God in 5:19-30.

In verse 20, Jesus Christ said that God the Father shows the Son everything he is doing which logically entails that the Son does everything in the same way (Grk. homoios) God the Father does everything, based on verse 19.

In verse 20, Jesus also said that God the Father will show greater works than these (i.e. the healing of the sick man sabbath). In the context, the greater works refers to the (i) raising the dead, (5:21, 5:25, 5:26, 5:28) and (ii) judging all men (5:22, 5:23, 5:27, 5:30). And both are equally mentioned in 5:29.

Equality with God (in raising the dead)

Jesus will resurrect the dead just as (i.e. equally as/ precisely the same way as) God will do it (5:21).** ''

For as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, so also the Son gives life to whom he will.'' (John 5:21 ESV) 

Equality with God (in receiving honor from everyone)

''All'' (Grk. pantes) will honor the Son ''just as'' (Grk. kathos, meaning, ''equally as/ precisely the same way as'') they honor the Father (v. 23). Verse 23 uses the phrase "for this reason" (Grk. hina), showing the reason why everyone will honor the Son and that's because the Son has been given ''all judgment'' (i.e. all of what the Father himself opined in righteousness) according to verse 22. The Father himself ''judges no one'' (v. 22a). Jesus is also the "the Son of Man" (Grk. huios anthropou) (v. 27b) in addition to being "the Son" (Grk. ho huios) (v. 19) of his "own father" (Grk. patera idion) (v. 18). The reason why the Father gave to the Son the authority to ''execute judgment'' (5:27a) is because Jesus is the Son of Man (v. 27b). In judging all men, Jesus does the judging by means of reporting what God the Father himself had told him (''As I hear, I judge'', v. 30). This is similar to what a prophet does. A prophet reports what God has told him.

''For the Father judges no one, but has given all judgment to the Son, that all may honor the Son, just as they honor the Father. Whoever does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent him. And he has given him authority to execute judgment, because he is the Son of Man.I can do nothing on my own. As I hear, I judge, and my judgment is just, because I seek not my own will but the will of him who sent me.'' (John 5:22-23, 5:27, 5:30 ESV)

In ancient Jewish literature, ''the son of man'' (Aramaic: bar enosh) refers to one who is a human being.

A “son of man” is, of course, an idiomatic way of designating a human being in ancient Semitic languages (Hebrew & Aramaic), and “sons of man” the plural equivalent. [1]. 

In Daniel 7:13-14, a divine figure (a celestial being, not a human being) was described as ''One Like a Son of Man''. Some ancient Jews deemed this divine figure as the translated patriarch, Enoch. They had this speculation that the Enoch had been transformed into an angel, was named ''The Lesser YHWH'', sat on the throne of God in heaven, and became the one who will execute all judgment in behalf of God [2].

Another ancient Jewish tradition was preserved in the Greek translation of the Hebrew bible (in the Old Greek (OG), not the Septuagint (LXX) that the divine Son of Man in Daniel 7:13-14 was God's very own theophany ('' the one like the Son of Man, coming ''as the Ancient of Days''). [3] 

Another Jewish traditon was contemporary to the apostles and that's Philo's the concept of the Logos [4]. Philo followed an ancient tradition of God having two divine powers: (1) the creative power, and the (2) ruling power. For the former, Philo refers to as ''God'' (Grk. theos) and for the latter, Philo referred to as ''Lord'' (Grk. Kyrios) which was both exemplified by the Logos of God. This Logos was the ''second God'' and as such its associated with the other Jewish tradition of the ''second Power'' ( = ''the second Yahweh'') which was referring to the divine Son of Man. Under the concept of the Logos, Yahweh is seen as totally transcended and does not do things directly but does everything through the Logos. This concept was also found in John. The prologue of John introduced Jesus as the Logos through whom God does everything. In John 5, God the Father judges ''no one'' ( recall that under the Logos concept, Yahweh is seen as totally transcended and does not do things directly) but gave it all to the Son, the Son himself will execute the judgment (here the Son was seen as the Logos through whom the Father had given the activity of judging).

In the Hebrew bible and other ancient Jewish texts, the term ''son of God'' was used both to angels and humans. The Qumran Jews who wrote the Dead Sea Scrolls (circa 300 B.C.E. - 1st century C.E.) believed that that Yahweh is the father of all gods. This posits that all gods were the ''sons of God'', God being the ''Most High'' (Deuteronomy 32:8 , Psalm 82:6 DSS). These gods were the angels as seen in the Septuagint (Deuteronomy 32:8 LXX). The Dead Sea Scrolls and the Septuagint were both very ancient, older than the Masoretic text but the latter agreed with the former in Psalm 82:1, 82:6 in having the ''gods'' as the ''sons of the Most High'. This shows that the original Israelites believed in lesser gods with Yahweh being the high god. The concept of the high god and lesser gods were ubiquitous in the Ancient Near East (ANE) where Israel also existed [5]. 

The other Jewish meaning of ''son of God'' refers to a human being. To call a man God's son is to believe that he's ''righteous'' [6].  In John 8:42, the Jews said they had one father who was God and that they were not illegitimate children. The same concept was applicable to John 5:18 because based on the context, Jesus was claiming to be the ''son of man'' (Greek: bar enosh) in the sense of ''human being'' who was 'God's son'' (i.e. righteous) imitating what his own father (i.e. God) was doing i.e. good works (v. 19). However, Jesus used the articular huios (Grk. ho huios) which meant that Jesus was not merely speaking of himself as one of the sons of God (one of the righteous people) but specifically as ''the Righteous One'' (cf. 1 John 2:1). This showed that Jesus was claiming to be the Anointed One (''The Messiah'') in John 5:18. 

The other meaning of ''son of God'' (its meaning in association with being a divine being) is also applicable in John 5:18 because ''the son of man'' being linked to ''the Logos was God'' in John's prologue (1:1-3). Recall that in ancient Jewish understanding, being the Son of Man was also referring to a divine being: 'The Second YHWH'', which was in turn related to the Jewish Logos concept, the Logos being ''the Second God'' and being ''God'' in Philo. Scholars call the unifying concepts of the Son of Man being the Lesser Yahweh/Second Yahweh and the Logos being the Second God as ''Second Power'' [7]. The Gospel of John seemed to adopt the other variant of Jewish tradition about the Son of Man (identifying him *as the Ancient of Days* i.e. God himself, not *as Enoch*) since a totally divine Logos in John 1:1-3  required a consistent identification of a totally divine Son of Man in 5:17-30.  

In John 5, Jesus was equal with God in all these areas because of his unique sonship:

(1) Jesus was a human Messiah (''The Son'') who imitates the good things God the Father does (v. 19).

(2) Jesus was a divine Messiah (''The Son of Man'') whose function as judge (vv. 22, 27, 30) reflect also his identity as the totally divine Logos (John 1:1-3, 1:17-18). This showed us that in the latter part of the first century C.E., Jesus was already deemed as eternally divine. 

In John 5,  Jesus is seen as divine based on his being ''the Son of Man''. The term ''Son of God'' in reference to Jesus was used in its purely Jewish sense (which refers to a man who is 'righteous'). Jesus, by being both Son of God and Son of Man simultaneously, is truly the ''only son of his kind'' (Grk. monogenes huios John 3:16, 18). 

References

[1] https://larryhurtado.wordpress.com/2017/10/13/the-son-of-man-an-obsolete-phantom/

[2] https://www.britannica.com/topic/Metatron 

https://www.patheos.com/blogs/anxiousbench/2013/09/the-mystery-of-enoch/

[3]  https://www.jstor.org/stable/26424522

https://www.duq.edu/assets/Documents/theology/_pdf/faculty-publications/The_Son_of_Man_and_the_Ancient_of_Days_O.pdf

https://brill.com/view/book/9789004386112/BP000018.xml

[4] https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/philo/

[5] https://digitalcommons.liberty.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1278&context=lts_fac_pubs

[6] https://www.jstor.org/stable/3259680

[7] https://digitalcommons.butler.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1111&context=facsch_papers 

The Meaning of εἷς κύριος (one Lord) in 1 Corinthians 8:6

yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we live.

I noticed that through Jesus all things came to be and through whom we live

I notice that the phrase ''one lord'' in relation with the creation of all things recalls the ''one lord'' of the Old Testament (''the lord is one'', Deut. 6:4, and ''you are the only lord. You made the heavens, even the highest heavens, with all the stars. You made the earth and everything on it, the seas and everything in them; you give life to everything. The heavenly army worships you.'', Nehemiah 9:6). Paul's applying to Jesus the exact same description of ''one lord'' which belongs to the only the true god.

This is all true,

• Jesus is not the Father, the Father is not Jesus
• Jesus, as the one lord, is god, because based on context, Paul relates Jesus with the ''many lords'' who are ''the so-called gods...on earth'' in verse 5. Paul is consistent that the many lords are gods and that his one lord is god.
• The Father, as the one god, is lord, specifically the one lord of the Shema.
• In this verse, Paul equally applies to both the Father and Jesus the 2 exact same prepositional phrases (''from him are all things'') and (''through him are all things'') from Romans 11:36, a doxology praising the lord god as Creator, which means that Paul regarded the Father (one god) and Jesus (one lord) as Creator in the text in question.

This is precisely an equality relationship as the very definition of ''one god'' and ''one lord'' features monotheism ( recalling the Shema: ''the lord our god, the lord is one'') in contrast to the polytheism of the many gods and many lords, the lords being gods on earth, based on context (vv. 4-6). Based on their contexts, both Acts 2:36 and Philippians 2:9-11 show that the risen Jesus was ''made lord'' by god (the father). 1 Corinthians 8:6 tells us that Jesus is already lord in the creation of all things, before he became in the likeness of humans (Philippians 2:6-7) so that Jesus and the Father are both ''uncreated'' in contrast to ''all created things''.

Notes

both Jesus, and Paul are right. ​​​​

Mark 12

29 “The most important one,” answered Jesus, “is this: ‘Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one. 30 Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind and with all your strength.’ 31 The second is this: ‘Love your neighbor as yourself.’ There is no commandment greater than these.”32 “Well said, teacher,” the man replied. “You are right in saying that God is one and there is no other but him. 33 To love him with all your heart, with all your understanding and with all your strength, and to love your neighbor as yourself is more important than all burnt offerings and sacrifices.” 34 When Jesus saw that he had answered wisely, he said to him, “You are not far from the kingdom of God.” And from then on no one dared ask him any more questions.

1 Corinthians 8:6

yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.

1 Corinthians 16:22

If anyone does not love the Lord, let him be accursed. Maranatha!

In Hebrew, Adonai (my Lord/Lord) is the oral/written substitute of the Tetragrammaton. In Greek, it's kyrios (Lord).

The Shema Yisrael in Hebrew has the Tetragrammaton ( = YHWH). When a Jew prays the Shema, he does not utter the Tetragrammaton but rather, he utters Adonai instead. And a Greek speaking Jew utters Kyrios instead.

Adonai literally means ''my lords'' but when used to the God of Israel, it's used in the singular (''my Lord'' or ''the Lord''). When the Greek speaking Jews translated the Hebrew Bible into Greek around the 3rd century B.C.E, they did not transliterate the divine name but rather, they wrote its substitute kyrios instead. Kyrios means a lot of things (''sir'', ''lord'', ''master'', ''owner'' etc.) and its exact meaning can be determined only by its context. Kyrios, corresponding to Adonai (''my Lord/ Lord''), means ''Lord''.

In the Bible, Yahweh is called ''Lord'' because (i) he is the ruler or leader of all who rule/lead others (rulers, kings, judges etc.) and because (ii) he created all things.

Why did God's people chose ''Lord'' as the oral/written substitute for the divine name?

In Deuteronomy 10:17, Yahweh was called ''Lord of lords''. This means that Yahweh is the ruler or leader of all who rule/lead others (rulers, kings, judges etc.). Yahweh was also called ''Lord'' because he created all things. In Matthew 11:25, Jesus says to the Father: “I praise you Father, Lord of heaven and earth … ” and in Acts 17:24, Paul says: “The God who made the world and everything in it, he is the Lord of heaven and earth … ”.

 kurios heis estin ([the] lord is one) in the Shema Yisrael in Greek is semantically the same with eis kurios (one lord) in 1 Corinthians 8:6. 

Paul applies the Shema to Jesus Christ in 1 Corinthians 8:6. In the Septuagint, the Shema reads: (akoue, Israel, kyrios o theos hemon, kurios heis estin) (Listen, Israel, [the] Lord our God, [the] Lord is one). It's now widely accepted among scholars that the phrase ''heis kyrios'' (one Lord) is derived from and alluded to the Shema' clause ''kurios heis estin'' ([the] Lord is one).

In the LXX Shema (Deuteronomy 6:4), the adjective heis (one) is a predicate conjoined to the noun kurios (lord) by the copula estin (is), In 1 Corinthians 8:6, heis (one) now modifies kurios (lord). Only the grammatical syntax changed.The clause ''the Lord is one'' is semantically identical to the phrase ''one Lord''. In other words, ''The Lord is one'' means that there is ''one Lord''.

The Greek speaking Jews applied the title kyrios (Lord) to Yahweh in the Shema. In 1 Corinthians 8:6, Paul applied to Jesus Yahweh's own identity as kyrios (Lord). In this case, the generic sense of  ''Lord'' ( = ruler) was applied to Jesus Christ but his dominion encompasses ''all created things''. In other words, the lordship of Jesus Christ is precisely the kind which Yahweh himself possesses. 

In Romans 15:6, Paul spoke of the ''Father'' as the ''God'' of our ''Lord'' Jesus Christ. In this text, we can see that Jesus is ''Lord'' of every creature except the Father. (This is congruent with 1 Corinthians 15:27 wherein Paul says that ''everything'' -- except God -- was put under Jesus' feet). Jesus Christ is deemed as ''uncreated'' (not part of ''all created things'' which are subjected to his (Jesus') lordship) in his lordship. Jesus Christ, as the uncreated Lord, has the Father as his own God which only shows functional, not ontological, subordination between them. 

In the Bible, Jesus Christ is identified as the ''one Lord'' of the Shema because (i) he is the ruler or leader of all who rule/lead others (rulers, kings, judges etc.) and because (ii) he created ''all created things''.

1. In 1 Corinthians 8:6, Paul applies to the Father and Jesus two prepositional phrases from Romans 11:36.
2. Paul did not apply ‘’ex’’ and ‘’eis’’ to Jesus in 1 Corinthians 8:6 like he did to God in Romans 11. 
3. It is also equally true that Paul did not apply ‘’di’ and ‘’eis’’ to the Father in 1 Corinthians 8:6 like he did to God in Romans 11. 
4. What Paul did is apply only one prepositional phrase for each. Paul applied ‘’ex’’ to the Father and ‘’di’’ to Jesus like he did to God in Romans 11. This means that Paul was identifying the Father and Jesus as Creator like he did to God in Romans 11.

Paul is relating the ''many lords'' (the so-called gods on earth, Gaius, Caesar Augustus, etc.) with the ''one Lord'' (the God of Israel, Yahweh) whom he identifies to be Jesus Christ. 

1 Corinthians 8:5 (NRSV)

Indeed, even though there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as in fact there are many gods and many lords

Paul tells his readers about ‘’the so-called gods…on earth’’ in 1 Corinthians 8:5. Who are these so-called gods on earth? In the same verse, they refer to the many lords. The so-called gods on earth were the many lords on earth. In the days of Jesus (AD 27) and of Paul (AD 30-50), the emperors were the many lords on earth, the gods on earth. The emperors were called Dominus (lord) and Deus (god).

 Paul put the Emperors (e.g. Nero, Ceasar, Gaius etc) and Jesus into the same category of κυριος ("lord"). In 1 Cor 8:5-6, Paul relates the many lords being gods on earth to Jesus Christ, who is also lord and hence, a god on earth. But Paul had in mind a specific lord, the lord mentioned in Shema Yisrael in Greek (i.e. the god of Israel, "God") and he identified Jesus Christ as that lord. Ergo, 1 Cor 8:5-6 is about many lords (Greco-Roman gods) contrasted against the one Lord (the God of Israel). This is a statement about polytheism (the many lords = "gods" on earth) and monotheism (one Lord = "God", based on the Shema: lord our God, lord is one).

The phrase "one Lord" (heis kyrios) is semantically the same as "the Lord is one" (kyrios estin heis) which is precisely what the Shema is saying. By identifying Jesus as the one Lord of the Shema, Paul is identifying Jesus as God, specifically as the God of Israel, Yahweh. Paul identifies the many lords as the so-called gods on earth. Examples of these divine lords were Gaius, Caesar Augustus and more in the first century A.D. but for Paul and his brethren, there's only one divine Lord and he's Jesus Christ. 

Paul conflated these two figures: ''the Father'' and ''Jesus Christ'' to the one figure (the one ''Lord God'') mentioned by the Shema Yisrael. In my analysis, Paul's beliefs can be described as semi-modalistic/proto-orthodoxy.

In the very same letter, Paul regarded the Holy Spirit as one Spirit whom Paul deemed to be responsible for people confessing Jesus as one Lord and the Father as one God.  

The absence of the Holy Spirit in 1 Corinthians 8:6 does not mean that the Holy Spirit does not feature in Paul's theological beliefs. In the very same letter, Paul speaks of the Holy Spirit as ''one Spirit'' (1 Corinthians 12:13) who causes one to confess ''Jesus is Lord'' (1 Corinthians 12:3). Paul shows his readers that in 1 Corinthians 12:3 and 12:13, the one Spirit is integral to knowing the one God and one Lord in 1 Corinthians 8:6.

Understanding the Verbs and Participles in Philippians 2:6-7

1. hegesato is the only verb in Philippians 2:6. 
2. hegesato is an aorist. Aorist refers to the action that occurred at an indefinite time in the past. Jesus did this (hegesato) action at an indefinite time in the past. 
3. The present participle huparchon [1] gives us an idea about in what state Jesus did the action of hegesato (e.g. Jesus ''thought'' about it while ''being'' in the form of God).
4.  In aorist verbs, we really don't know if the action continues to happen until the present time (imperfect aspect). In aorist, we only know that the action already occurred (perfect aspect). Aorist is indefinite and only the context can determine exactly when the action occurred.
5.  In the context of Philippians 2:6 (v. 7), we're told about another action (ekenosen) in the aorist. Jesus did empty himself at an indefinite time in the past. As to how Jesus did the self-emptying, Paul used two aorist participles (unlike the present particple in v. 6): labon ( have taken) and genomenos (have become). We still don't know when exactly these actions occurred since these participles are in the aorist.
6.  The prepositional phrases ''en homoiomati anthropon'' and ''en moprhe theou'' (in combination with the verbs occurred with them) showed us that Jesus was existing in God's form and then become in men's likeness. 
7. This showed us that Jesus had existed prior to becoming in the likeness of men. Hence, genomenos en homoiomati anthropon points us to the specific time of Christ's birth (c. 4 - 6 BCE). So the actions hegesato and ekenosen occurred before Christ's birth but there was no specific time exactly when (was the hegesato happened before time or before Abraham was born in 3000 BCE? John 8:58, or before the world was? John 17:5).

Notes

[1] Participles has no tense because it is not a finite verb.  A participle only looks like a verb (i.e. verbal). In English and Greek, there exists ''finite verbs'' (shows tense) and ''non-finite verbs'' (doesn't shows tense). I was speaking of the latter whilst you are speaking of the former. Hence, the misunderstandings. huparchon is not a verb that shows tense (non-finite verbs). The evidence for this is huparchon being a participle. Participle will never be a finite verb.

Note that it is impossible to refer to the scenario in Philippians 2:6 in the present time because the only verb there is in the indefinite past (aorist). Huparchon only refers to the state / condition when Jesus did the action of hegesato. 

Note that a participle can be translated into different tenses. The tense of a participle depends on the main verb found in the context. For example, In Philippians 2:6 it has ''present participle''. In v. 7 it had two ''aorist participles''. For example, huparchon could take the tense of the main verb (hegesato), and it would be past tense because hegesato was an aorist (referring to action happened at an indefinite time in the past). Ergo, we have ''was existing''.

Nor the Son: The Christology of Mark 13:32

Jesus can be God without knowing the day nor the hour because Jesus can choose not to exercise his attribute of omniscience. Omniscience is the capacity to know everything  (source). 

Omniscience is an ability, not a tenseless property of deity. Omniscience is the ability to know any fact correctly if one so wishes. God may choose for instance to not listen to the prayers of sinners, or to choose what areas He wishes to exercise His ability to foreknow (Jimi Bryan, 2021).

The lack of knowledge in Mark 13:32 and the growing in wisdom in Luke 2:52 is because all knowledge and all wisdom is hidden in the Lord Jesus Christ (Colossians 2:3). Why was it hidden? Because it is like a treasure that needs to be searched out. For the Lord Jesus, this searching of knowledge and wisdom was a natural part of his incarnation. The incarnation is the Lord Jesus Christ limiting himself by his own choice of becoming human in order to serve (He "emptied himself", by taking the form of one who serves, by being born in the likeness of humans, Philippians 2:7). It is during his earthly life that he grew in wisdom and was taught of knowledge by God the Father, which Jesus used to serve us: "I do nothing on my own but say only what the Father taught me" (John 8:28). "I came not to be served, but to serve" (Mark 10:45).

Jesus is himself is the only one who will judge on that day and hour (John 5:22). It is quite strange that the Lord Jesus did not know the day nor the hour of his very own day ("the day of the Lord" is a phrase used equally to both the Father and the Son in the Bible).

Jesus as κυριος (''Lord'') in the Acts of the Apostles

The book of Acts identified the human Jesus (i.e. the historical Jesus mentioned in the synoptic gospels) as the same Lord spoken of in Joel 2:32 (LXX) after he rose from the dead, equating the risen Jesus with the OT Lord God (Acts 2:2-22, 2:38, 10:36). The book of Acts identifies the risen Jesus himself as the one who heals the sick people and drives out evil spirits from the possessed people (Acts 3:6, 3:16, 4:7-11, 16:18). In Acts 17:18, the people thought Paul was preaching about the risen Jesus as a strange god. If Paul were only saying that Jesus was a man, Paul’s listeners would never think of him preaching about Jesus as a god. 

The disciples prayed to the Lord in Acts chapter 1 verse 24. In the immediate context, the Lord whom they prayed to refers to the Lord Jesus (v. 23). Jesus is also the Lord addressed in v. 6 in the same chapter. This isn't the only time people prayed to Jesus in Acts. For instance, people call on the name of the Lord Jesus in baptism (Acts 2:21, 2:38, 22:16)

In both the Old Testament and the New Testament, to call on the name of the Lord means to pray to the Lord:

Genesis 4:26: the people began to call on the name of the Lord

Joel 2:32: everyone calling on the name of the Lord

1 Corinthians 1:2: everyone in every place who call on the name of the Lord Jesus

In Acts chapter 2 verse 36, God has made (epoiēsen) Jesus κυριος (''lord''). In vv. 34-35, Peter cited the Greek version of Psalm 110:1 as evidence for this. The God who made Jesus ''lord'' was also ''lord'' in Psalm 110:1. In the text, God is making Jesus like himself, making Jesus ''lord'' just like he is.

In earliest New Testament text, Paul explained why Jesus was made Lord by God and it's because Jesus emptied himself of his lordship by taking the form of a slave (One Lord, Jesus Christ: Paul's ''Kyrios Christology''). 

In the same chapter, in verse 38, Peter applies to Jesus Joel 2:32 (LXX), which he (Peter) cited earlier in Acts 2:21, identifying Jesus' lordship as the same that of what Yahweh himself possesses. Thus, per Peter, the 2 occurrences of κυριος (''lord'') in Psalm 110:1 refers to two distinct figures possessing the same exact title ''lord'' and the same exact kind of lordship (''ruling over all''). God rules over all and he (God) made the human Jesus to also rule over all. Jesus is ''lord of all'' (Acts 10:36). 

In the book of Acts, Peter believes that Jesus is the κυριος (" lord") of Joel 2:32 (LXX) in Acts 2:21 based on context:

Acts 2:21

everyone calls on the name of the Lord will be saved
Acts 2:38
everyone repent and be baptised in the name of Jesus for the forgiveness of sins
Acts 22:16
be baptised, washing away your sins, calling on his name

In the book of Acts, baptisms were all done by calling on the name of the Lord Jesus. It's the human name ''Jesus'' alone that can save (Acts 4:12). In the book of Acts, Jesus is the Lord whose name everyone should call for salvation.  (Acts 2:38, 5:28, 5:30-31, 22:16). Peter believed that everyone should be baptised in the name of Jesus for the forgiveness of sins (Acts 2:38). It is this name that everyone should call on during baptism (Acts 22:16).Everyone calling on the name of the Lord Jesus for salvation is the fulfillment of Acts 2:21 where Peter quoted Joel 2:32 (''everyone calling on the name of the Lord will be saved''). 

Peter is applying Joel 2:32 in Acts 2:21 to Jesus in Acts:

Acts 2:21
everyone calls on the name of the Lord will be saved
Acts 2:38
everyone repent and be baptised in the name of Jesus
for the forgiveness of sins
Acts 22:16
be baptised, washing away your sins, calling on his name
Acts 9:14
everyone who calls on your name ("Lord Jesus" in context)
Acts 10:36
Jesus is Lord of everyone
Acts 19:17
fear fell on everyone and the name of the Lord Jesus was held in high honor.

The book of Acts as a whole consistently identified Jesus as the Lord mentioned in Joel 2:32: 

Acts 2:21
everyone calls on the name of the Lord will be saved
Acts 2:38
everyone repent and be baptised in the name of Jesus 

for the forgiveness of sins
Acts 22:16
be baptised, washing away your sins, calling on his name
Acts 9:14
everyone who calls on your name ("Lord Jesus" in context)
Acts 10:36
Jesus is Lord of everyone
Acts 19:17
fear fell on everyone and the name of the Lord Jesus was held in high honor.

Paul also applies Joel 2:32 to Jesus in Romans 10:9-13 and 1 Corinthians 1:2.

The Greek word epikaleó means ''to call on'' / ''to invoke''. 

To call on the name of the Lord Jesus means to pray to the Lord Jesus. 

Acts 22;16 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) ''And now why do you delay? Get up, be baptized, and have your sins washed away, calling on his name''.

To invoke the name of the Lord Jesus means:

(i) to supplicate/ request something from/ ask the Lord Jesus something, such as salvation, deliverance from evil spirits, healing diseases, etc.).

(ii) to cite the name of the Lord Jesus in preaching/teaching/healing/exorcisms/prayers/baptism etc. 

Acts 5:28-31 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) ''saying, “We gave you strict orders not to teach in this name,[c] yet here you have filled Jerusalem with your teaching and you are determined to bring this man’s blood on us.” 

Acts 5:40 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) ''and when they had called in the apostles, they had them flogged. Then they ordered them not to speak in the name of Jesus, and let them go.

Acts 9:28 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) ''So he went in and out among them in Jerusalem, speaking boldly in the name of the Lord.''

Acts 9:14-15 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) ''and here he has authority from the chief priests to bind all who invoke your name.” 15 But the Lord said to him, “Go, for he is an instrument whom I have chosen to bring my name before Gentiles and kings and before the people of Israel''.

In Acts 7:59-60, Stephen prayed to the Lord Jesus. In the same chapter, Jesus is the same Lord who says that he's the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob: 

Acts 7:30-33, 7:59-60 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV): 30 “Now when forty years had passed, an angel appeared to him in the wilderness of Mount Sinai, in the flame of a burning bush. 31 When Moses saw it, he was amazed at the sight; and as he approached to look, there came the voice of the Lord : 32 ‘I am the God of your ancestors, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.’ Moses began to tremble and did not dare to look. 33 Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off the sandals from your feet, for the place where you are standing is holy ground. 59 While they were stoning Stephen, he prayed, “Lord Jesus , receive my spirit.” 60 Then he knelt down and cried out in a loud voice, “Lord , do not hold this sin against them.” When he had said this, he died.

Peter talked about the ministry of Jesus (prior to the crucifixion of Jesus) in Acts 2:22. In the text, Peter said that God himself performed miracles through the human Jesus. Jesus himself performed miracles but he was not alone in performing them, God also was performing them through Jesus. Acts 2:22 agrees with John 5:17, 10:14:

John 5:17

New Revised Standard Version

17 But Jesus answered them, “My Father is still working, and I also am working.”

John 14:10

New Revised Standard Version

10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own; but the Father who dwells in me does his works.

All miracles (healing of diseases, exorcisms) that occurred in the book of Acts were also done in the name of Jesus. 

Acts 16:18 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) 18 She kept doing this for many days. But Paul, very much annoyed, turned and said to the spirit, “I order you in the name of Jesus Christ to come out of her.” And it came out that very hour.

Acts 3:6 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) 6 But Peter said, “I have no silver or gold, but what I have I give you; in the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, stand up and walk.” 

The name of Jesus refers to the person of Jesus (i.e. Jesus himself).

Acts 4:12 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) ''There is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among mortals by which we must be saved.”

In Acts 4:7, it explicitly stated that what healed the man was the ''name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth''. Since it is the human name ''Jesus'' which heals the sick, this means that the person, the human Jesus himself is the One who does the healing. 

Acts 3:16 New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) 16 And by faith in his name, his name itself has made this man strong, whom you see and know; and the faith that is through Jesus has given him this perfect health in the presence of all of you.

Acts 4:7–11 (NRSV)
7 When they had made the prisoners stand in their midst, they inquired, “By what power or by what name did you do this?” 8 Then Peter, filled with the Holy Spirit, said to them, “Rulers of the people and elders, 9 if we are questioned today because of a good deed done to someone who was sick and are asked how this man has been healed, let it be known to all of you, and to all the people of Israel, that this man is standing before you in good health by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead.

Acts 17 distinguishes God from Jesus as a numerically distinct person from him. In the same chapter (v. 18), the people thought Paul was preaching about Jesus as a strange god. If Paul were only saying that Jesus was a man, Paul’s listeners would never think of him preaching about Jesus as a god. 

 ‘’What is he trying to say?” Others said, “He preaches about strange gods.” It was because he preached of Jesus and of His being raised from the dead.’’ Acts 17:18 

The Meaning of λόγος in John 1:1

The Greek word logos, as ''word'', refers to expression from the inside out. 

When one uses ''reason'' (i.e. logos), these two are involved [1]: 

logos endiathetos - the word within the mind (i.e. thoughts)

logos prophorikos - the thoughts expressed out as letters (word) or speech (words). 

When one uses reason (the human ability to think in an intelligent way, make sensible decisions, etc. [2]), one is ''thinking'' (forming thoughts) in his mind. And when one shares his ideas/thoughts to others, he says/utters (forming words) them from his mouth. 

When translating the Greek phrase ''ho logos'' of John 1:1, 1:14 into English, it should be treated as a proper noun: (''the Logos'', not ''the logos'' or ''the Word'', not ''the word'') because it refers to the name of a person [3].

John only used the Greek word logos by itself. in John 1:1, 1:14. The apostle did not use either the Greek phrase logos endiathetos (thoughts) or logos prophorikos (word). It's highly likely that John intends to utilise both of its meanings. 

The logos is word (thoughts expressed out) but the logos still exists even if it is not expressed out (thoughts). This means that the logos always exists. It's just impossible not to. There was never a time when God was without his logos. Thus, to identify Jesus as the Logos means that there was never a time when Jesus did not exist. The gospel of John did affirm quite repeatedly that the divine Jesus has always existed (John 1:1, 1:2, 1:18, 8:58, 16:32, 17:5).This is the significance of using Logos as a title of Jesus in the Prologue.

The Logos was with God John 1:1b

In the bosom of the Father John 1:18c

Jesus as the Logos was so near to God (reclining in God's own bosom, or chest). This shows Jesus as the Logos has a close relationship with God. In John 13:23-24, Peter asked John (who was reclining in the bosom of Jesus) about who was Jesus talking about, because he (Peter) thought that John, who was in a very close proximity to Jesus, heard what Jesus said.  

Majority of English Bibles translates logos as into English as logos prophorikos (''word'') in John 1:1, 1:14. 

John used a chiastic structure (to highlight or emphasise that Jesus was "God" (θεος) in the very beginning of his gospel. This showed that he deemed the Logos as a heavenly being/divine being, and not human being. 

No one has ever heard the voice of God (John 5:37) just as no one has ever seen God (John 1:18). Mortals cannot see God and does not hear directly from God in his dwelling place (which is unapproachable). God can only be seen and heard by mortals through intermediaries, like the angels, prophets and the Lord Jesus Christ. John 5:36 God cannot be seen by mortals is consistent with John 1:18 (no one has ever seen God).

1 Timothy 6:16

New Revised Standard Version

16 It is he alone who has immortality and dwells in unapproachable light, whom no one has ever seen or can see; to him be honor and eternal dominion. Amen.

No one can see him and live (Exodus 33:20). Any mortal will instantly be killed once he/she tries to see the Lord God. Jesus had seen God (John 6:46) and shared glory (i.e. brightness) with God before creation (John 17:5). This brightness was God and Jesus dwelling in an unapproachable light, whom no one has ever seen or can see (1 Timothy 6:16).

When the Word became flesh, (John 1:14), he was manifest in flesh (1 Timothy 3:16) and was seen, heard and touched (1 John 1:1-3).

In the Old Testament, the word (logos) of God came to the prophets and these prophets share what they heard from God to the people [4]. John 10:35 speaks of the word (logos) of God which came to the gods (i.e. angels) in Psalm 82:6.

"and the word of the Lord came to Micah"

καὶ ἐγένετο λόγος κυρίου πρὸς Μιχαιαν (Micah 1:1 LXX)
"and the word of the Lord came to Ezekiel"
καὶ ἐγένετο λόγος κυρίου πρὸς Ιεζεκιηλ (Ezekiel 1:3LXX)
" and the word of the Lord came to Zechariah"                                                                    καὶ ἐγένετο λόγος κυρίου πρὸς Ζαχαριαν (Zachariah 7:8 LXX)

Angels can hear the voice of the Lord (Psalm 103:20, John 10:35) and the angels will share the word (i.e. message) of the Lord to mortals. The Greek word anggelos itself means ''messenger''.

Luke 1:19

New Revised Standard Version

19 The angel replied, “I am Gabriel. I stand in the presence of God, and I have been sent to speak to you and to bring you this good news.

It was not God the Father in heaven who spoke to Moses. According to Acts 7, Jesus was the Lord (functioning as an angel/messenger) who appeared to Moses and spoke to him:

Acts 7:30-33, 7:59-60 (NRSV): “Now when forty years had passed, an angel appeared to him in the wilderness of Mount Sinai, in the flame of a burning bush. 31 When Moses saw it, he was amazed at the sight; and as he approached to look, there came the voice of the Lord: 32 ‘I am the God of your ancestors, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.’ Moses began to tremble and did not dare to look. 33 Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off the sandals from your feet, for the place where you are standing is holy ground.  59 While they were stoning Stephen, he prayed, “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.” 60 Then he knelt down and cried out in a loud voice, “Lord, do not hold this sin against them.” When he had said this, he died.''

Jesus as the Word (of God) means Jesus is how God speaks his mind. Jesus hears from God and Jesus relays what he heard to others (John 5:30, 8:38, 12:49). Jesus is the Logos because God communicates to us through Jesus, not through literal speech. In other words, Jesus as ''the Word'' functions as God's ''spokeperson'', a function which is also carried by prophets and angels.

The Personified Logos in the Old Testament

In the 3rd century B.C.E., the logos was personified in the Septuagint: 

His Logos will run swiftly ( ἕως τάχους δραμεῖται ὁ λόγος αὐτοῦ Psalm 147:15 LXX)

Your Almighty Logos leaped down from heaven out of thy royal throne, as a fierce man of war into the midst of a land of destruction, (ὁ παντοδύναμός σου λόγος ἀπ’ οὐρανῶν ἐκ θρόνων βασιλείων ἀπότομος πολεμιστὴς εἰς μέσον τῆς ὀλεθρίας ἥλατο γῆς ξίφος ὀξὺ τὴν ἀνυπόκριτον ἐπιταγήν σου φέρων. Wisdom 18:15 LXX)

The logos is god in the third century B.C.E.

In ancient Greece, Athens (circa 300 B.C.E.), Greek Stoic philosophers said that the "logos was god". However, they deemed the logos to be also nature. Hence, Stoicism is pantheistic. 

"For the Stoics, logos was equally reason (individual and universal), nature, and God, while for Philo, logos is not ultimate reality but merely what we can see and understand of God, who is Himself very far from human comprehension. In Stoicism, logos is God; in Philo it corresponds to his specific doctrine of the dunameis, the powers of God who created the world and governs it (Philo of Alexandria, 3.2 Stoicism, Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy, 2018).

For John, the logos was also god (John 1:1c) but that his logos was a personal god, not impersonal like that of the Stoics. The logos was "with God", repeated by John twice in his prologue (John 1:1, 1:2). John taught that the logos was a unique God (μονογενης θεος) different from all the other gods (cf. John 1:18, 10:34-35, Psalm 82:6). 

The logos is god in the first century A.D. 

In the 1st century A.D., Philo of Alexandria (c. A.D. 50) called the Logos "God" (θεος) [4]). The gospel of John was written in this time period (c. A.D. 90) and also called the Logos ''God" (θεος) (John 1:1c). This logos christology persisted in the next century. Justin Martyr (c. A.D. 100-160) spoke of Jesus as the other God, next to the first God, the Father, who has no God above him [5]).

Notes

[1] ''Stoic psychology emphasized the lack of coincidence between the reasoning power, which rests within, and language, which gives outward expression to the powers of reason. Since the same word logos was used to designate both the power of reasoning and reason as expressed in speech, the difference came to be stated as a difference between two logoi. One might no less properly express this as a distinction between two types or states of language. A language within, or an inner language (logos endiathetos ), is then distinguished from a language that we have in common with talking birds, a language expressed in speech (logos prophorikos).'' (https://www.encyclopedia.com/philosophy-and-religion/philosophy/philosophy-terms-and-concepts/logos).

[2] https://www.macmillandictionary.com/us/dictionary/american/reason_1

[3] The logos per se is not a person. However, logos is a name for Jesus both in John 1:1, 1:14 in the same exact way in Revelation 19:13.

Also, if θεος is interpreted in its general sense (i.e. god), it shows that ho logos (the subject in John 1:1) was a name/title for a person who is being called θεος.

• Moses was god (θεος) (Exodus 7:1).
• ...they thought that Paul was a god (θεος) (Acts 28:6)
• The Word was God (θεος) (John 1:1).

[4] Philo of Alexandria (c. A.D. 50) calls the Logos "second god [deuteros theos]" (Questions and Answers on Genesis 2:62). 

[5] ''Justin: I shall attempt to persuade you, since you have understood the Scriptures, [of the truth] of what I say, that there is, and that there is said to be, another God and Lord subject to the Maker of all things; who is also called an Angel, because He announces to men whatsoever the Maker of all things— above whom there is no other God — wishes to announce to them.'' (Justin Martyr, Dialogue with Trypho, Chapters 56)