Wednesday, December 9, 2020

The God of our Lord Jesus Christ: Functional Subordination in Earliest NT texts (the Pauline Corpus)



2 Corinthians 1:3
New Revised Standard Version
Paul’s Thanksgiving after Affliction
3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and the God of all consolation,

Romans 15:6
New Revised Standard Version
6 so that together you may with one voice glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.
A Petrine text uses this Pauline language:  

1 Peter 1:3
New Revised Standard Version
3 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ! By his great mercy he has given us a new birth into a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,

Paul believes that Jesus, as Lord, has a God. However, Paul indicates that Jesus' God is his own ''Father''. Jesus as Lord rules over everyone (the only exception is God the Father/ Jesus does not ruler over God the Father). In 1 Corinthians 8:6, Jesus is Lord ( i.e. rules over every creature ) because he created ''all created things''.

 In Paul's belief, Jesus' sonship is related to his lordship. Paul believes that Jesus is Lord of all creatures because he is God's ''Son'', the Son through whom God created the universe (Hebrews 1:2).The reason why all angels worship Jesus in verse 6 is because Jesus, as the Son, is the Lord of all angels. Jesus inherits the name ''Lord'' (Hebrews 1:4). In Philippians 2:9-11, God the Father gave to Jesus the name ''Lord''. Both instances (the inheritance of the name/ giving of the name above all names) happened after Jesus died on the cross (''when he had made purification for sins'' Hebrews 1:3). However, Jesus is already deemed as ''Lord'' in his pre-human existence in 1 Corinthians 8:6, Philippians 2:6-7, and here in Hebrews 1:10. God the Father acknowledges that his Son, as Lord, is Creator in Hebrews 1:10. 
Hebrews 1:1-6, 1:11
New Revised Standard Version
1 Long ago God spoke to our ancestors in many and various ways by the prophets, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom he also created the worlds. 3 He is the reflection of God’s glory and the exact imprint of God’s very being, and he sustains[b] all things by his powerful word. When he had made purification for sins, he sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high,4 having become as much superior to angels as the name he has inherited is more excellent than theirs. 5 For to which of the angels did God ever say, “You are my Son; today I have begotten you”? Or again, “I will be his Father, and he will be my Son”? 6 And again, when he brings the firstborn into the world, he says, “Let all God’s angels worship him.” .....10 And, “In the beginning, Lord, you founded the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands; 

If God is putting all things under Christ's feet, then it means that Christ isn't that God who put all things under his feet. The New Testament consistently identifies this God as ''the Father of Jesus''. And yes, also as the ''God of Jesus'' (Romans 15:6, 2 Corinthians 1:3, 1 Peter 1:3). 

Jesus, as Lord, has his own Father as a God over him. That is to say, Jesus, even in his being God, has a God over him.

Hebrews 1:8
Of the Son, he says: ''Your throne O God is forever and ever.''


Here ''God'' (the Father of the ''son'' in v. 2, ''begotten son'' v. 5) acknowledges that his son is ''God'', having the exact same title ''God'' as him. In the Old Testament, the Israelite king was the original referent who is being called ''god'' in Psalm 45.

God calling others god or even ''gods'' (as in the case of Psalm 82:6 LXX [quoted by Jesus in John 10:34]: ''you are gods'', does not negate the fact that God is one (The Lord our God, the Lord is one, Deuteronomy 6:4 LXX).

The evidence that Jesus and 
his God (and his Father) are the same Lord God is 1 Corinthians 8:6. Paul applies the Shema's 2 divine titles (''Lord'' and ''God'') with its adjective ''one'' to 2 persons (''the Father'' and ''Jesus Christ'') in 1 Corinthians 8:6.

In Philippians 2:10, Paul says that every knee that bends (mostly likely referring to the every knees of every creature) in the name of Jesus are located in three different locations (in heaven, on earth, and under the earth). All of these creatures that bend their knees in the name of Jesus will also confess Jesus is Lord to God the Father's glory (v. 11). The Father is being highlighted (''to the glory of God the Father'') when every creature worships Jesus as Lord. This is because every creature is worshiping Jesus as one who's carrying in himself God the Father's own name of ''Lord'' (''God gave to him the name above every name'' v. 9). 

1 Corinthians 15:27 wherein Paul says that ''everything'' -- except God -- was put under Jesus' feet). Jesus Christ is deemed as ''uncreated'' (not part of ''all created things'' which are subjected to his (Jesus') lordship) in his lordship. Jesus Christ, as the uncreated Lord, has the Father as his own God which only shows functional, not ontological, subordination between them. 

Monday, December 7, 2020

Jesus was ''made Lord'' and was ''given the name Lord'' by God

Acts 2:36

Texts with κυριος must be interpreted in its context, just like any other text.

Acts 2:34-35 is the context of Acts 2:36. It quotes Psalm 110:1 where it has YHWH said to adoni. Thus, the text is saying that Jesus is made adoni (Lord as Messiah, not Lord as God). YHWH himself is Lord (Adonai) as God.

In Romans 10:9-13, it quotes Joel 2:32 (a YHWH text) wherein the Lord refers to YHWH. Thus, the text identifies Jesus as YHWH.

Note
Adonai (literally, "My Lords" is used in the singular "My Lord" or simply "Lord/LORD" when ascribed to God)
Adoni (literally, "My lord" , singular of Adon)
Adon (literally, "lord/Lord")

Philippians 2:9

The Tetragrammaton (YHWH) is absent in all extant Greek MSS of Philippians 2:9-11. The "name (Greek: ονομα, name/title) above every name" in the context (v. 11) is the title κυριος, which means "lord" and since κυριος in this text refers to the written substitute of the Tetragrammaton, it is to be capitalised as either "LORD" or "Lord". In this case, it was not the Tetragrammaton itself ( = YHWH) which was given to Jesus but the title/name κυριος ("LORD/Lord"). This corresponds to the Hebrew Adonai (also means "LORD/Lord"). Both κυριος and Adonai are not the same as YHWH. κυριος and Adonai are mere oral/veral substitute as well as written substitute for the Tetragrammaton (the four letter name): "YHWH". They became known as names for Yahweh because they feature regularly/constantly in religious practises. The Jews first gave to God the name/title Adonai (κυριος in Greek/Mar in Aramaic) circa 3rd century B.C.E. and the Apostle Paul wrote that God gave it to Jesus in the earliest years of Christianity (Paul's letter to the Philippians was written circa 52 - 61 C.E.).


Note

1. In the Septuagint (3rd cen. C.E.), the written substitute for the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) is κυριος anarthrous (without the definite article), treating it as a name, not as a common noun. On the other hand, the articular κυριος in the LXX refers to superiors, masters.

Saturday, December 5, 2020

Angelomorphic Christology in Acts 7

God "spoke" to us "through/by" many intermediaries: prophets, angels, and Jesus. Jesus is better than the other two. That's the point of Hebrews. I believe that the writer of Hebrews holds a tradition that the Son (as spokeperson in behalf of the Father) was better than the prophets and angels, both who were also carrying the function of being spokepersons. This didn't nullify the other tradition that the angel of Yhwh was the pre-incarnate Word, the Son of God, Jesus Christ.

The word "angel" in English is typically referring to a heavenly being. But the Greek word it translates (ανγγελος) is used to many non-heavenly beings (human beings "sent" by God to accomplish his will. When referring to these, it can be translated as "messenger" which has less connotations of being a heavenly being as known in the English speaking world. The word "'messenger" of course can translate it regardless of the essence of the one sent [1]) in the Greek Septuagint and the Greek New Testament. That is, the word ανγγελος does not denote essence, but function. Either heavenly or earthly beings are called that. So regardless of one's essence, if one is sent from God, he could be called ανγγελος. Thus, it is apt to call Jesus (the Word himself) ανγγελος because the Bible does refer to Jesus as one who is sent by God. In the 2nd century A.D., Justin Martyr called Jesus an ανγγελος while believing that Jesus was begotten "before all creatures".

The context affirms that the angel in Acts 7:32 was the Lord Jesus Christ himself:

Acts 7:30-33, 7:59-60 (NRSV):

30 “Now when forty years had passed, an angel appeared to him in the wilderness of Mount Sinai, in the flame of a burning bush. 31 When Moses saw it, he was amazed at the sight; and as he approached to look, there came the voice of the Lord: 32 ‘I am the God of your ancestors, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob.’ Moses began to tremble and did not dare to look. 33 Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off the sandals from your feet, for the place where you are standing is holy ground.  59 While they were stoning Stephen, he prayed, “Lord Jesus, receive my spirit.” 60 Then he knelt down and cried out in a loud voice, “Lord, do not hold this sin against them.” When he had said this, he died. 


Notes

[1] How does "angels" typically used in scripture? Young's Literal Translation translated it as "messenger" in Hebrews 2:7. The English words "angel" and "messenger" equally literal translation of the word "anggelos". In English translations, if the translator chose "messenger" but it refers to heavenly beings, the translator specify it: "heavenly messenger". We cannot get "heavenly messenger" from the word ανγγελος alone, as the word does not connote essence, the English does, the Greek doesn't. One who is ''sent'' to be speak the words of God to the people in behalf of God is a ''messenger'' ( a spokeperson). A messenger could either be heavenly being or a human being. 

Thursday, December 3, 2020

New Testament Pneumatology in Paul's Epistles (1 Corinthians and Romans)


1 Corinthians 2:10-16 Literal Standard Version (LSV)

10but God revealed [them] to us through His Spirit, for the Spirit searches all things, even the depths of God, 11for who of men has known the things of the man, except the spirit of the man that [is] in him? So also the things of God no one has known, except the Spirit of God. 12And we did not receive the spirit of the world, but the Spirit that [is] of God, that we may know the things conferred by God on us, 13which things we also speak, not in words taught by human wisdom, but in those taught by the Holy Spirit, comparing spiritual things with spiritual things,

14and the natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him, and he is not able to know [them], because they are discerned spiritually; 15and he who is spiritual, indeed discerns all things, and he himself is discerned by no one; 16for who knew the mind of the LORD that he will instruct Him? And **we have the mind of Christ.

Romans 8:26-27 Literal Standard Version (LSV) 26And in like manner also, the Spirit helps our weaknesses; for what we may pray for, as it is necessary, we have not known, but [this] One—the Spirit—makes intercession for us with unutterable groanings, 27and He who is searching the hearts has known what [is] the mind of the Spirit, because according to God He intercedes for holy ones.

  1. The mind of the LORD (1 Corinthians 2:16a)
  2. The mind of Christ (1 Corinthians 2:16b)
  3. The mind of the Spirit (Romans 8:27)


Paul spoke of the mind of the LORD, the mind of Christ and the mind of the Spirit, which meant that he regarded these three as persons, or rational beings, that can know things.


Also, in 1 Corinthians 2, the Spirit ''searches'' (v. 10) and ''teaches'' (v. 13). Then in Romans 8:26, the Spirit ''intercedes'. All of these activities were done by persons in the Bible


In verse 11, (''the things of God no one has known, except the Spirit of God''). Here the Spirit of God is analogous to the spirit of man in man in the same verse (''who of men has known the things of the man, except the spirit of the man that [is] in him?''). In thise case, the Spirit of God is in some sense the mind of the LORD in verse. 16. But verse 16 also says that we know the mind of the LORD because we have the mind of Christ. This logically shows that both the Spirit of God and Christ know the mind of the LORD.


Conclusion

We have access to the mind of the LORD because we have the mind of the Spirit and the mind of Christ. They might overlap in some aspect when speaking about their relationship with humans but them being distinct persons (each having one's own mind) is also found in the text. 


Notes

  1. Both 1 Corinthians and Romans were earliest Pauline epistles. Romans was written in A.D. 57 whilst 1 Corinthians was written in A.D. 56.

Tuesday, December 1, 2020

Did Jesus claim to be God? What does the New Testament say?

First, it is explicitly written in NT Scripture that Jesus claimed to be God: περὶ βλασφημίας, καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς σεαυτὸν θεόν. John 10:33 
Second, Jesus claiming to be Son of God in v. 36 is in the context of the gods who are sons of God in Psalm 82 which Jesus himself quoted as Scripture. Jesus himself understood the accusation of blasphemy in light of Psalm 82:6 (blasphemy.....you makest thyself God....Say ye of him....thou blasphemest, because i said I am the Son of God?):

Psalm 82:6
6 I have said: You are gods and all of you the sons of the most High.

John 10
32 Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
33 The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
35 If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

and third, this is again reiterated in the gospel's inclusio:

Prologue of John:

The Word was God (John 1:1)
In him was life (John 1:4)
Believe in his name (John 1:12)

Epilogue of John:

That you may believe
Jesus Christ, the Son of God
that by believing you may have
life in his name (John 20:31)​


The inclusio in the Gospel of John reveals that "Belief in Jesus as both God and Son to have Life" is the gospel's purpose.

Wednesday, October 28, 2020

The Meaning of Εγο ειμι in John 8:58



Isaiah 45:18 in Hebrew had the Tetragrammaton ( = YHWH) but the Greek Septuagint used ego eimi ( = i am), not Kyrios ( = Lord) as the substitute for the Tetragrammaton. 

Οὕτως λέγει Κύριος ὁ ποιήσας τὸν οὐρανόν, οὗτος ὁ θεὸς ὁ καταδείξας τὴν γῆν καὶ ποιήσας αὐτήν, αὐτὸς διώρισεν αὐτήν, οὐκ εἰς κενὸν ἐποίησεν, ἀλλὰ κατοικεῖσθαι ἔπλασεν αὐτήν, Ἐγώ εἰμι, καὶ οὐκ ἔστιν ἔτι. (Isaiah 45:18 LXX)

It's highly likely that ego eimi in John 8:58 also represents the Tetragrammaton because it occured in the context where Jesus was claiming to be eternal. 

The grammar of Psalm 90:2 in the Greek translation (the Septuagint) is the same as in John 8:58 and only differing in the inflection of the prounoun.

Psalm 90:2 (LXX) says that "before the mountains were...You are".  

John 8:58: "before" Abraham was, I am".


The Jews correctly understood Jesus to be claiming pre-existent in vv. 56-57 but Jesus himself added more in v. 58. In this verse, Jesus also claimed to have existed in the same way Yahweh existed i.e. eternally. This is the reason why the Jews wanted to stone Jesus in v. 59. It's really the same reason found in John 10:33 which had a different scenario but the same claim of "blasphemy", because Jesus, "being a man, made himself God".


The present tense indicated that whether the mountains came into existence or not, Yahweh is deemed to be existing, to be always there existing, in contrast to the mountains which clearly had come into existence. Likewise, Christ's eternal existence was contrasted against the "coming of Abraham" in 3000 BCE:


Yahweh always exists whilst the mountains came into existence

Jesus always exists whilst Abraham came into existence

 

The Meaning of θείας κοινωνοὶ φύσεως in 2 Peter 1:4

The Meaning of θείας κοινωνοὶ φύσεως in 2 Peter 1:4

2 Peter 1:4 explicitly speaks of persons "participating in the divine nature" (θείας κοινωνοὶ φύσεως). Anyone who is called "god" by Yahweh logically participates also in his own nature because it is how the agent can perform god-like functions (i.e. miracles). For to be a god necessitates to have powers and attributes i.e. nature that is essential to a god (cf. Exodus 7:1, Psalm 82:6, John 10:34). A man that only has the essence of man cannot do what a god can do unless he is truly "made a god" , as in the case of Moses, who was explicitly described as having been made god by Yahweh in the Hebrew Bible, with supporting Biblical evidence such as his participation in divine glory as well as performing 40+ miracles. 

How is Moses being god different from Jesus being God? Moses is a generic god, made so by Yahweh, who is the God of Israel and who is explicitly described as the "God of gods" in Scripture. Thus, Moses' godhood is different from that of what Jesus himself possesses. Jesus is the same God as Yahweh. In John 20:28, Jesus acknowledges that he is both Lord and God.

Sunday, October 25, 2020

Jesus' argument in John 10:34-36

Jesus was arguing that God the Father had other children who were gods (Psalm 82:6 You are gods and children of the Most High) but that he, Jesus, was the unique divine Son so that he was not blaspheming but speaking of the truth. 

             The Chiastic pattern (A-B-A-B) in John 10:33, 36 

For blasphemy, because you, being a man,

are making yourself God (v. 33)

You say...I blaspheme because

I say I am God's son? (v. 36)

 

Jesus believed that he was set apart from the other divine sons, Jesus himself being the ''unique Son'' (no other divine son is like Jesus) who was sent into the world:

You say of him whom God set apart and sent into the world (John 10:36) The unique son (monogenes huios) ...sent into the world (John 3:16-17)

In his prologue, John spoke of Jesus as monogenes theos: the "unique God'' (Jesus was unlike the gods in John 10:34; Psalm 82:6. Jesus is different from the other gods).

 Among the other Elohim, Jesus is unique Elohim exactly just as Yahweh is. Jesus was truly God even in the beginning, before all things came into being (John 1:1-3), which again sets him apart from other divine sons, as these were came into being but Jesus did not (not one thing came into being without him i.e. Jesus) (John 1:3b).

What kind of theos was Jesus? Jesus is ho theos [God] (John 20:28) who breathed into the man (compare Genesis 2:7 with John 20:22). 


Jesus (i) gives eternal life and (ii) no one snatches the people from his hand in the same way no one statches them from the Father. It is in this way Jesus and the Father are one [i.e. equal] (John 10:29-30). Giving of life and having a powerful hand were Yahweh's prerogatives in Deuteronomy 32:39. Jesus was claiming he and the Father possess same abilities. This is why the Jews thought of Jesus was blaspheming because he, being a man (hon anthropos), was making himself God (theos), referring to Yahweh. 

The Meaning of θεότητος in Colossians 2:9

ὅτι ἐν αὐτῷ κατοικεῖ πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα τῆς θεότητος σωματικῶς (Colossians 2:9 NA27). 

In majority of extant Greek manuscripts, we have theotes (deity) in the genitive case: theotetos (''of deity''). 

The Greek noun Theotetos etymologically came from the Greek noun theos and suffix -tes. The addition of the suffix -tes to theos makes it an abstract noun: theotesCompare the abstract noun ‘adelphotes’ (brotherhood) in 1 Peter 2:17 with ‘theotes’ (godhood). 

The Greek suffix '' -tes'' refers to "state/quality/idea".

The Greek noun ''theos'' refer to ''god /God''. 

Therefore, theotes literally means ''the state of being God/god / the idea of what God is/ the quality (nature) of God''. The quality (nature) of God refers to what makes God God. In this case, the Greek phrase πᾶν τὸ πλήρωμα τῆς θεότητος can be literally translated as: all the fullness of what makes God God.

Footnotes:

[1]  theotes (“deity”) is in the nominative case. 

Compare the abstract noun ‘adelphotes’ (brotherhood) in 1 Peter 2:17 with ‘theotes’ (godhood) in Colossians 2:9. 

Friday, October 23, 2020

''Spirits'' in the Hebrew Bible and the Greek New Testament

It is essential for God, as spirit, to be immortal (''who alone has immorality'' - 1 Timothy 6:16). God, being spirit (John 4:24) cannot die but the Word himself (being God) can die, having become flesh [mortal] (John 1:14). Without a body of flesh, Jesus would not be able to taste death. Jesus died precisely because he was mortal, he had a mortal body, a corruptible body and a body of flesh and blood.

he has now reconciled in his body of flesh by his death, in order to present you holy and blameless and above reproach before him, Colossians 1:22

Jesus died (his lifeless body was there inside the tomb) and was alive again (meaning, he's now with his body again). The risen Jesus is now having a ''body of spirit'' (previously, he had the ''body of soul'') based on 1 Corinthians 15:44. A body of spirit refers to a Spirit's body whilst the body of soul refers to a Soul's body. It was recorded in the Bible that 8 souls have been saved during the great deluge. Human beings are souls with bodies. Genesis 2 spoke of God breathing the breath (Grk. pneuma, spirit) of life into the nostrils of the man (i.e. in his body) and the man became a soul (i.e. a living being). A Spirit's body refers to the resurrected bodies of the Spirits who formerly were Souls (people with living bodies). They are called ''bodies of the Spirits'' (singular: ''body of spirit'', as employed by Paul) because these Spirits were bodiless (without bodies) because of death and because of the resurrection, these Spirits were said to have bodies, specifically, resurrected bodies.

Isaiah 14:9-15 "Sheol from beneath is excited over you to meet you when you come; It arouses for you the spirits of the dead, all the leaders of the earth; It raises all the kings of the nations from their thrones. "They will all respond and say to you, 'Even you have been made weak as we, You have become like us. 'Your pomp and the music of your harps Have been brought down to Sheol; ... I will make myself like the Most High.' "Nevertheless you will be thrust down to Sheol, To the recesses of the pit.'' Isaiah 14:9-15

Luke 16:22:23 And it came to pass that the poor man died, and he was carried away by the angels into the bosom of Abraham. And the rich man also died and was buriedAnd in Hades, having lifted up his eyes, being in torment, he sees Abraham from afar, and Lazarus in his bosom.


The dead bodies of Jesus (and of God's people) will be the same body to be given immortality at the resurrection.

always carrying in the body the death of Jesus, so that the life of Jesus may also be manifested in our bodies. 1 Corinthians 4:10

The Hebrew word sheol is a versatile word. It can refer to the mere ground where the dead is placed (Psalm 146:4) or to the place of the dead under the earth ( every knee...will bow... under the earth....and every tongue will confess... Jesus is Lord, Philippians 2:10). So those under the earth (Grk. hades, Heb, sheol) can bend their knees and confess with their tongues, they can speak and acknowledge Jesus as Lord. The spirits of the dead in Sheol in Isaiah 14:9-15 were also able to speak.

Isaiah 14:9-15 "Sheol from beneath is excited over you to meet you when you come; It arouses for you the spirits of the dead, all the leaders of the earth; It raises all the kings of the nations from their thrones. "They will all respond and say to you, 'Even you have been made weak as we, You have become like us. 'Your pomp and the music of your harps Have been brought down to Sheol; ... I will make myself like the Most High.' "Nevertheless you will be thrust down to Sheol, To the recesses of the pit.'' Isaiah 14:9-15

The word spirit (Greek: pneuma) can refer to either the human spirit/spirit of man (which refers to the mind of man) (1 Corinthians 2:11) or breath (Genesis 2:7) or the wind (John 3:8). It's also a divine name in Matthew 28:19.

The spirit of man (1 Corinthians 2:11) is the ''inward man'' which is different from the body of man (''outward man''). The self without a body does continue existing because the body decays and dies and perishes but the spirit does not perish. It is renewed daily (2 Corinthians 4:16). 

''For which cause we faint not; but though our outward man perish, yet the inward man is renewed day by day'' (2 Corinthians 4:16).''

The spirit does not perish after death, but rather, it returns to God: ''the spirit return to God, who gave it'' (Ecclesiastes 12:7). Other texts speak of the spirits going down to Sheol with consciousness (Isaiah 14:9-15). The New Testament teaches that the spirit of man continues to exist even after the body of man perishes (2 Cor. 4:16, 5:1-8).

The human spirit (the spirit of man) does not cease to exist but remained conscious after death.  "When his spirit departs, he returns to the earth; in that very day his thoughts do perish'' (Psalm 146:4).The spirit of man is not the same thing as the thoughts of man. Thoughts are products of the mind, of the person (self) doing the act of thinking. That's the spirit (1 Corinthians 2:11). The verse itself says that the breath ''departs'' (not perished). Death is described to be like the state of being asleep in Scripture. When one sleeps, the thoughts perish too. But that does not mean the spirit or the mind cease to exist just because of sleeping.  

Death in the bible is described as ''sleep'', not ''cessation of existence''. When one sleeps, he does not cease to exist. Yahweh himself (who is immortal) is even described as sleeping in Psalm 44:23:

''Rouse yourself! Why do you sleep, O Lord?
Awake, do not cast us off forever!'' (Psalm 44:23 NRSV)

In 2 Corinthians 5:6, 8, Paul spoke of his desire to be at home with the Lord (who is in heaven) and away from his body. How could Paul be at home with the Lord ''without a body'' ? Paul already spoke of the inward man earlier in chapter 4 (v. 16). The outward man perish but not the inward man. The inward man is being changed daily. The inward man refers to the spirit in man (1 Corinthians 2:11).
''For we know that if the earthly tent we live in is destroyed, we have a building from God, a house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens. 2 For in this tent we groan, longing to be clothed with our heavenly dwelling— 3 if indeed, when we have taken it off we will not be found naked. 4 For while we are still in this tent, we groan under our burden, because we wish not to be unclothed but to be further clothed, so that what is mortal may be swallowed up by life. 5 He who has prepared us for this very thing is God, who has given us the Spirit as a guarantee. 6 So we are always confident; even though we know that while we are at home in the body we are away from the Lord— 7 for we walk by faith, not by sight. 8 Yes, we do have confidence, and we would rather be away from the body and at home with the Lord. (2 Corinthians 5:1-8 NRSV).

2 Cor 5:6, 8 was not talking about the living body. The context shows that to be absent from the body is tantanmount to saying the earthly tent (i.e. body) is destroyed (2 Cor 5:1) and the outward man (i.e. body) perish (2 Cor 4:16). Further evidence for this is 2 Corinthians 12:1-3 where Paul spoke of a man who went into the third heaven either out of the body or in the body, only God knows. The phrase "out of the body" is that same bodiless existence in heaven earlier in chapter 5:6, 8. God showed Paul a vision of real events. Paul wasn't talking allegorically here. The man here was a real man existing 14 years ago according to Paul.

In Revelation 17:3 says that "the angel carried me away in the Spirit" (this corresponds to the being "out of the body, not in the body" in 2 Corinthians 12:1-3. It basically answered Paul's question of the ambiguity whether the vision occurred in the body or out of the body. It did occur out of the body because it occurred in the spirit. The point is that the distinction between being in the body and being in the spirit (out of the body) is here, even if the text is not speaking of death but of visions. 1 Peter 3:18-19 supports this distinction even further and in the context of the afterlife: Jesus was "being made dead in body but made alive in the spirit" and "in that spirit" he went to the "spirits in prison" and preached to them. It was definitely referring to the afterlife here since the body was spoken of as dead and the spirit alive, going to other the place where other spirits also existed. This was a conscious experience after death since after Jesus died, being in the spirit, He went to the place of spirits (not bodies) preaching to them ( the other spirits: the spirits in prison). Jude 1:6 is parallel to 1 Peter 3:19, the spirits there were the angels who sinned. Still, it occurred after Jesus' death, in the spirit and in the place under the earth, specifically in Tartasus (the lower part of Sheol/Hades). Here cannot mean the angels were put into the grave.

Isaiah spoke of spirits conscious and talking in Sheol/Hades, so it wasn't surprising or strange or impossible that the spirits under the earth (Sheol/Hades) were also able to bend their knees and confess that Jesus is Lord in Philippians 2:10, 11.  Paul believed the spirits under the earth (in Sheol/Hades) were not allegorical. John 5 spoke of the dead in their tombs (obviously referring to the bodies of the dead, not their spirits in Sheol/Hades. The scripture speak of the spirits of the dead having abilities to hear and respond, so that when the dead heard the Son of God, they rise with their bodies from the tomb. This is the consistent N.T. interpretation.

When Jesus died, his human body was buried in the tomb but his human spirit did not cease to exist. According to the New Testament, his human spirit went to God the Father (Luke 23:46). Another text said that Jesus' spirit went to the spirits in prison (under the earth/sheol/hades) and he even preached there (cf. 1 Peter 3:19).

The apostles believed in spirits unlike the Sadducees 

Paul himself said he was a Pharisee (Philippians 3:5). It was the Sadducees who "denied the spirits, the angels amd the resurrection" (Acts 23:8). Paul certain believed in the spirit of man (1 Cor 2:11, 2 Cor 4:16). Peter too spoke of the spirits whom Jesus visited after he died and even preached to them (1 Peter 3:15).

The Sadducees also denied the existence of the angels (who are themselves also spirits, 1 Peter 3:19), the existence of the spirits (that is in man, 1 Cor 2:11, that does not perish , 2 Cor 4:16, that is alive after death of body, 1 Peter 3:18, 19 and the reality of the resurrection (the spirits of the dead united again to their bodies, but that have been made immortal bodies). The Sadducees denied all of them (Acts 23:8) but they were accepted by the apostles themselves.

The gospels (Luke 24:36-51, Mark 6:49-50) recorded the apostles got afraid for they thought Jesus was a ghost (Grk. Φάντασμά). The apostles thought they saw a ghost. That's what apparition meant in its basic sense. The Greek was phantasm (Φάντασμά). Yes it was an "apparition", a supernatural appearance of a person or thing, especially a ghost, as the dictionary definition says. It was an apparition of a spirit (πνευμα), as elaborated by the text (Jesus spoke of spirit as having no flesh or bones). The apostles therefore mistook Christ for an apparation, they thought that what they saw was a spirit of the dead (without flesh or bones) and were afraid. It was so logical in the gospels account of this that the apostles believed in the spirits, not as the Sadduccees.




The Meaning of ἐκένωσεν in Philippians 2:7

Jesus emptied himself by taking the form of a slave.

 Key ideas 

• Paul made a wordplay with ekenosen and kenodoxa in the text. Paul also used heauton (himself) as the direct object of ekenosen. This means that Paul alerts his readers to understand Christ's action of ekenosen in light of the moral qualities about selflessness he just described in vv 2-4. 

In Philippians 2:3, Paul told his readers to do nothing from: 

1. Kenodoxa (Lit. empty glory) - highlighting one's self (self-conceit)
 2. erithea (Lit. pay for hire) - doing things for one's selfish-ambition (self-serving). 

As the Lord God, Jesus deserves to be served. However, according to Mark, Jesus "came to serve not to be served". In Jesus' self-emptying, Paul was telling us that the Lord Jesus Christ "looked not only to his own interests but also looked to the interests of others" (Philippians 2:4). 

• Paul also has made a contrast between Jesus' equality with God (v. 6) and Jesus' new role as a slave in v. 7. A slave is one who serves a lord/master. In Jesus' previous life, he and God have everyone else serving them. Paul believed that they are the same Lord. In 1 Corinthians 8:6, Paul applies the Shema to Jesus, ascribing to him the divine title "one Lord" (εις κυριος) from the Shema's "the Lord is one" (κυριος εστιν εις) and also ascribing to him the role of being Creator ("through him are all things").
 
• Paul consistently used the active sense of harpagmos in his letters. In Philippians 2:6, harpagmon in the active sense befits the context: who, being in the form of God, did not consider it a robbery (to empty others of their own possessions by force) to be equal with God, but rather, he emptied himself, by taking the form of one who serves others. He served others by emptying himself of his own possessions (riches). The active sense befits the context that speaks of Christ's service using socio-economic metaphor (to empty one's self/ to robbery). This is consistent with Paul's socio-economic metaphor in 2 Corinthians 8:9 where it says that Jesus is rich but that he chooses to become poor so that he can make others rich by his poverty. 



The God of Jesus as the Origin of High Christology

The God of Jesus is the same as the Father of Jesus. Even before creation, Jesus, as the Son, adores and worships his God and Father (The Wo...